Expert: John Thai, M.D. - 11/6/2007

Question
If a man has HIV and has unprotected sex with a woman (or with a man also) does he/she automatically get HIV or does there have to be some wound in the vagina/anus for the virus to pass into or does it just enter through the thin skin…?

And same for the male, if the female has HIV, does he automatically get it or does he need to have a wound on the penis?

I understand that women are receivers but how do men get the virus if they have no cut?

Answer
Hi Pienaar,

HIV is transmitted via seminal/vaginal fluid or blood exchange. There does not always need to be an open lesion for transmission to occur. If seminal/vaginal fluid containing the HIV virus is injected into the vagina, anus, or penile urethra, there is a high risk of contracting HIV. Having an open lesion or dermatone/skin breakdown (i.e. ulcers, herpes, hemorrhoids, etc) will increase the risks of contracting HIV.

Any infectious microbial agents can enter via the male urinary tract - the urethra. That is the reason why many physicians recommend men to urinate immediately after sex to minimize the chances of bacterial infections. However, it does not prevent HIV and certain types of sexually transmittable infections.

Regards,

John Thai, MD