Advanced Math/Sets and functions
Expert: Paul Klarreich - 12/11/2008
QuestionLet f: X is onto Y. Prove that f is a one-to-one function if and only if f(A)intersection f(B)= f(A intersection B) forall pairs of subsets X. I do not even know how to begin this one, so if you could explain it, I would greatly appreciate it.
AnswerQuestioner: Pete
Category: Advanced Math
Private: No
Subject: Math Foundations Proofs
Question: Let f: X is onto Y. Prove that f is a one-to-one function if and only if f(A)intersection f(B)= f(A intersection B) forall pairs of subsets X. I do not even know how to begin this one, so if you could explain it, I would greatly appreciate it.
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Hi, Pete,
These are tricky, and the key is to focus on SINGLE elements. (I mean one at a time, not un-married.)
NOTATION: For sets A,B, to simplify my typing:
A + B is union.
AB is intersection.
A <= B is 'subset of'
x in A means 'x is an element of A'.
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Your 'theorem':
f is 1-1 iff f(A) f(B) = f(AB) for all A,B <= X.
When you have to prove P iff Q, you can do it in two ways:
One way:
Assume P, prove Q.
Assume Q, prove P.
Another way:
Assume P, prove Q.
Assume not P, prove not Q.
When you have to prove set X = set Y, you do this:
Prove X <= Y.
Prove Y <= X.
and to do those:
if a in X, prove a in Y.
if a in Y, prove a in X.
(see? focusing on ONE element.)
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OK, let's do it.
Assume that f IS 1-1.
Let A,B be any subsets.
Claim: f(AB) <= f(A) f(B)
1. If y in f(AB), then y = f(x), where x in AB.
2. If x in AB, then x in A and x in B.
3. If x in A and x in B, then f(x)=y in f(A) and f(x)=y in f(B)
4. If y in f(A) and y in f(B) then y in f(A) f(B).
Done:
Second claim:
f(A) f(B) <= f(AB)
1. If y in f(A) f(B) then y in f(A) and y in f(B).
2. If y in f(A), then y = f(x1), where x1 in A.
3. If y in f(B), then y = f(x2), where x2 in B.
>>>>>>>> Correction; y in f(B), in line 3.
4. But if f(x1) = y = f(x2), then x1 = x2, because f is 1-1.
===== SEE? THE 1-1 STUFF HAD TO COME IN HERE SOMEPLACE =====
So y = f(x), where x in A and x in B.
5. So x in AB, and f(x) = y in f(AB)
Done.
So f(AB) <= f(A) f(B) AND f(A) f(B) <= f(AB)
Therefore f(AB) = f(A) f(B)
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Now assume f is not 1-1. Then we can find x1 /= x2 such that:
f(x1) = f(x2) = c
Let A = {x1}, B = {x2}. Now
f(A) f(B) = {c}{c} = {c}
AB = { }, f(AB) = { } /= f(A) f(B)
Cute?