Expert: Paul Klarreich - 2/7/2011

Question
1^0 =1 && 2^0=1
therefore 1^0=2^0. as powers are equal bases would be equal. therefore 1=2.....how is it possible?????

Answer
Questioner: will
Country: India
Category: Advanced Math
Private: Yes << changed
Subject: maths
Question: 1^0 =1 && 2^0=1
therefore 1^0=2^0.

as powers ???and exponents??? are equal bases would be equal.

>> Simply not true for zero exponents.

>> Since 73 * 0 = 5 * 0, does 73 = 5?

>> There is several books around on mathematical fallacies, many much better than this.

Such as:
http://www.amazon.com/Mathematical-Fallacies-Flaws-Flimflam-Spectrum/dp/08838552...

Is it possible for the average << insert your own measure, such as height, weight, ...>> of each of two groups to increase but the average in the aggregate to remain the same?

Well, then, if the 3 smallest members of the basketball team leave to join the ping-pong team, then....

And the story goes that in the 19h century the << -- insert your own persecuted group >> settlers in northern Florida were driven out and forced to relocate in Georgia, thus raising the average IQ in both states.

..........................
therefore 1=2.....how is it possible?????

>> obviously it isn't.