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Prove using a proof sequence that the argument is valid:

(A-->C)^(C-->B')^B-->A'

So how would I justify, step by step, that the argument above is valid? Thanks in advance!

I believe this says that A implies C and C implies not B

then B implies not A.

It is not valid.

If A-->C, then C is a set in A.

If C-->B', then B is not in C.

Just because B is not in C, it could be in A where A does not include C.

I did this by drawing shapes.

Make an oval on a piece of paper and call it A.

Since A-->C, make another oval called C that is fully contained in A.

Since C-->B', then draw a region for B outside of C.

Note that the region for B would contain part of A and part of the outside of A.

From this picture, it can be seen that B has nothing at all to do with A'.

It is both on the inside and outside of A and A'.

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