Expert: Ahmed Salami - 7/10/2004

Question
Hello:

I want to thank you for your reply. I have a two part follow-up question.

1. From you reply, what is the reason for dividing by 2?

2. If the calculation is multiplied by (2, 1/2 lbs.)/1 lb, the reciprocal of 1 lb./(2, 1/2 lbs.),  could the answer be determined?

[1 lb./(2, 1/2 lbs.) X $2.40/(2, 1/2 lbs.)] X (2, 1/2 lbs.)/1 lb = ?
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Followup To
Question -
Hello:

How is the answer determined for the following?
Do not change, if possible, 2, 1/2 lbs. to 1 lb. to determine the answer.

(2, 1/2 lbs. represents two one-half pounds.)

1 lb./(2, 1/2 lbs.) X $2.40/(2, 1/2 lbs.) = $1.20/(1/2 lb.)

I thank you for your reply and answer.
Answer -
Hi,
I don't quite get you. I believe I have answered this before. But if it makes you feel any better, try this.
Divide the 1lb by the 2 to give
(1/2lb)/(1/2lb)x $2.40/(2, 1/2 lbs.)
Next, divide 2.40 by 2 and you would get
(1/2lb)/(1/2lb)x $1.20/(1/2 lbs)
= 1 x $1.20/(1/2 lbs)
= $1.20/(1/2 lbs)
Perhaps this should help.
regards.


Answer
Hi,
sorry for the delay.
We divide by 2 to have all expressions in just lbs (without any number before them).
Like i once said, multiplying and dividing by two equivalent expressions results in the same correct thing if you have manipulated well.
I hope you get it.
regards.