Ancient Languages/Carpe Omnia

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Question
Hi Maria! I was looking at a couple Latin terms and I like the whole Carpe Omnia thing, I wanted to know how you would say "I will seize it all" instead of just "seize it all". Thanks for your help!

Answer
Hello,

“Omnia carpam” is the correct translation for "I will seize it all".

This Latin phrase is somehow inspired by the well-known “Carpe diem” (Seize the day) we read as a command in Horace’s Odes, Book 1, ode 11, line 8, where the Roman poet invites a girl, Leuconoe, to enjoy life as long as it's possible and then seize the pleasures of the moment without concern for the future, as I’ve written in one of my previous answers  to another questioner (see below).

Please note that OMNIA (direct object, accusative neuter plural of OMNIS) means “it all”/”all things”, while CARPAM (1st.person singular, future of CARPO) means “I will seize”.

Have a nice day,
Maria
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P.S.
You can read my previous answer at:http://en.allexperts.com/q/Ancient-Languages-2210/Latin-translation-20.htm#b

Note that my answer which dates back to  1/1/2007 has been copied much later by someone without citing the exact source, as he should have done correctly.
See at http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20090417120454AALH89W  

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Maria

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I am an expert in Latin & Ancient Greek Language and I'll be glad to answer any questions concerning this matter.

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Over 25 years teaching experience.

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I received my Ph.D. in Classics from Genova University (Italy).

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