Expert: Maria - 1/18/2010

Question
I am trying to get the phrase "By no means have I lost my way" translated into ancient Greek for my volunteer project, so I can get them printed on t-shirts. I have looked this up and got: Οὐδαμῶς διημάρτηκα τῆς ὁδοῦ.  Is this correct? Please help me out, I would appreciate it. Thanks.  

Answer
Hello,

“Οὐδαμῶς διημάρτηκα τῆς ὁδοῦ” is correct as it literally means “I have certainly not lost my way”.

See below for grammatical analysis.

Have a nice day,
Maria
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Note that:

-Οὐδαμῶς (adverb) = by no means/ in no wise / certainly not

-διημάρτηκα (1st. person  singular, perfect indicative  active of the verb διαμαρτάνω which takes the indirect object in the genitive case)= I have lost

-τῆς ὁδοῦ (indirect object, genitive of  the feminine noun  ὁδός, 1st.declension,  meaning “way”, “path”, “road”.