Expert: Maria - 4/9/2011

Question
QUESTION: Hi Maria,

I was wondering if you could clarify the meaning of the word fulfill (πληρόω) in the context of the Bible verse Matthew 5:17. There seems to be some subtle variations in the connotation of this word depending on the reference.

Connotation 1 - the sense of improving, repairing, perfecting what was lacking.

Connotation 2 - the sense of satisfying, finishing, bringing something to completion.

I am curious to know whether either of these connotations is preferred by the context (or by the word itself). I also recognize the possibility that the connotations vary so subtly that the context may not provide enough information.

Thanks in advance for your help.

ANSWER: Hello,

obviously I can tell you only the meaning of the verb Πληρόω that means just “to make full”, “to complete”, “to fulfil”  either in the sense of “improving, repairing, perfecting what was lacking” or in the sense of “satisfying, finishing, bringing something to completion”.

No suggestion I can give you with regard to either of these connotations is preferred by the context in the Bible verse Matthew 5:17 as Bible hermeneutics is NOT  my field of expertise, of course!

Best regards,
Maria
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
See Matthew 5:17 Greek Study Bible:
Μὴ νομίσητε ὅτι ἠλθον καταλῦσαι τὸν νόμον ἢ τοὺς προφήτας• οὐκ ἦλθον καταλῦσαι ἀλλὰ πληρῶσαι.


---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: Hi again Maria,

Thanks so much for taking the time to answer my question.

The fact that Bible hermeneutics is Not your field of expertise actually puts
you in the perfect position to give an unbiased perspective - because you
aren't tempted to read any doctrinal presuppositions into the text. The very
reason I'm asking is because I am NOT interested in a doctrinal opinion. I am
after an objective opinion from an expert.

If as an expert, your opinion is that neither connotation is explicitly
preferred by the context, that is, that there is not enough information in the
context to make a conclusion, then I would also be happy with that assessment.

Thanks again.

Answer
Hi again,

firstly thanks for your kind words.
Secondly, as an expert in Ancient Greek, my opinion is exactly that "neither connotation is explicitly  preferred by the context, that is, that there is not enough information in the context to make a conclusion".

All the best,
Maria