Ancient Languages/Shakespeare phrase
In your translation of the Shakespearean verse "To thine own self be true" is it permissible to shorten it to "Tibi fidelis" or would a latin speaker have expected the "ipsi esto"?
I am thinking of a famous motto "Semper fidelis" which I believe does not imply a verb - just an adverb and an adjective.
actually "Semper fidelis” means “Always faithful” used in a broad sense, whereas Shakespeare’s verse "To thine own self be true" cannot be shortened to "Tibi fidelis" without “ipsi esto”, just because “To thine own self be true” is a command/exhortation which requires the imperative “esto” (=be) as well as the dative “ipsi” (=own self) agreed with “tibi” (= to thine).
In short, “Tibi fidelis” generically means “To thine faithful” that does not correspond exactly to the sense of "To thine own self be true”, i.e. Polonius' advice to his son Laertes in Shakespeare’s Hamlet (Act I, scene III , line 78 ).
-to thine = TIBI (dative of TU meaning 'you', personal pronoun, 2nd.person singular)
-own self = IPSI (dative of the pronoun IPSE, own self)
-be = ESTO (imperative, 2nd.person singular, of the verb SUM, I am)
-true = FIDELIS (nominative singular of the adjective)