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Question
Maria,

In an unbiased manner, please provide me insight regarding the following passage of Scripture (II Thessalonians 2:1-3).  I would like to know, in context and according to the principles and grammatical structure of the Greek language, what day is the word “day” in verse 3 referring to: the event in verse 1 (“coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto Him”) OR the one (“day of Christ”) mentioned in verse 2?  Thanks!

1 Ἐρωτῶμεν δὲ ὑμᾶς, ἀδελφοί, ὑπὲρ τῆς παρουσίας τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ ἡμῶν ἐπισυναγωγῆς ἐπ’ αὐτόν, 2 εἰς τὸ μὴ ταχέως σαλευθῆναι ὑμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ νοὸς [a]μηδὲ θροεῖσθαι μήτε διὰ πνεύματος μήτε διὰ λόγου μήτε δι’ ἐπιστολῆς ὡς δι’ ἡμῶν, ὡς ὅτι ἐνέστηκεν ἡ ἡμέρα τοῦ [b]κυρίου. 3 μή τις ὑμᾶς ἐξαπατήσῃ κατὰ μηδένα τρόπον· ὅτι ἐὰν μὴ ἔλθῃ ἡ ἀποστασία πρῶτον καὶ ἀποκαλυφθῇ ὁ ἄνθρωπος τῆς [c]ἀνομίας, ὁ υἱὸς τῆς ἀπωλείας, 4 ὁ ἀντικείμενος καὶ ὑπεραιρόμενος ἐπὶ πάντα λεγόμενον θεὸν ἢ σέβασμα, ὥστε αὐτὸν εἰς τὸν ναὸν τοῦ [d]θεοῦ καθίσαι ἀποδεικνύντα ἑαυτὸν ὅτι ἔστιν θεός.

1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto Him, 2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.  3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition.

Answer
Hello,

According to the principles and grammatical structure of the Greek language, ἡ ἡμέρα τοῦ κυρίου, literally meaning “ the day of the Lord”, we read in II Thessalonians 2, verse 2, is referring to the event in verse 1 (“coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto Him”, i.e. ὑπὲρ τῆς παρουσίας τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ ἡμῶν ἐπισυναγωγῆς ἐπ’ αὐτόν ) .

As for what we read in King James Version (KJV, verse 3 “for that day shall not come..”, please note that the Greek word “ἡμέρα” (= day”) does not appear in the Greek text of this verse, but it has been added in the English translation just as a free addition that however has no equivalent in the Greek text nor in the Latin Vulgate II Thessalonians 2, verse 3 :“ne quis vos seducat ullo modo quoniam nisi venerit discessio primum et revelatus fuerit homo peccati filius perditionis” where there is not “dies Domini” (the day of the Lord) equivalent to the Greek “ἡ ἡμέρα τοῦ κυρίου”.

To sum up, in the Greek text of II Thessalonians 2:1-3 we read the word “ἡ ἡμέρα” (the day) just once at the end of  the verse 2 (ὅτι ἐνέστηκεν ἡ ἡμέρα τοῦ κυρίου = as that the day of Christ is at hand), where this “day” is just referring to the “the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ (Greek:τῆς παρουσίας τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ).

Hope this is clear enough.

Best regards,
Maria

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Maria

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I am an expert in Latin & Ancient Greek Language and I'll be glad to answer any questions concerning this matter.

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Over 25 years teaching experience.

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I received my Ph.D. in Classics (summa cum laude) from Genova University (Italy).

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