Expert: Maria - 8/28/2004

Question
Dear Maria,  08/28/04

I'm curious to know why humans still speak different languages today.
I'm curious too, why and how did different languages come about?
Thank you for my query:
"Language Origins: Why, When and How?"

Cordially, Mike Goodold
< goodoldm@yahoo.com >  Too. ... :-)

Answer
Dear Mike,

The origin and evolution of human language is  a  really serious question on a thought-provoking subject and it would need a very long and detailed answer with references to many scholars theories, but this is not my specific field of expertise.

In fact, I'm an expert in Ancient Greek and  Latin, NOT  in Linguistics [see at my profile].

Anyway, I'll try to make a synthesis by pointing out a few relevant matters, to my opinion of course.

First of all the only thing I can say is that Indo-Aryan or Indo-European languages (i.e.  the most important languages of Western civilization, from Latin and Greek to Italian, French, Spanish, Portuguese,  Romanian,  English, German, Scottish, Irish, Cornish, Welsh , Danish, Icelandic, Norwegian, Swedish,  Dutch, Flemish, Polish, Czech, Slovak, Serbo-Croatian, Bulgarian, Slovenian Russian , Albanian and all the other European languages, except Finnish and Hungarian) originate from  an unrecorded prehistoric language spoken by only one nomadic people  who, in prehistoric times, settled in  modern Kyrgyzstan,  Persia and northern India.

So, this  family of languages comprises those spoken in most of Europe and in the parts of the world colonized by Europeans since 1500, and also in Iran, the subcontinent of India, and some other parts of Asia.


Second,  it's very difficult to say what was the first language in history, or rather I daresay almost impossible.
If we go back to the beginning and examine the origin, evolution  and diversification of human language, we can certainly make a list of several languages, but not say which has been the first.

Anyway, we can think that the first well-documented languages were born in Asia (see Sumerian in South Mesopotamia, 5th millennium BC.; Chinese, 4th millennium BC.) and in Africa at the same time (see Aegyptian  4th-3rd  millennium BC.) and then in Europe (Indo-Aryan or Indo-Europeans languages, 2500 B.C.).

This with regard to “WHEN”, but  as for “WHY and  HOW “, I am afraid I  cannot explain this scientifically  nor know I whether can be a solution, i.e. a specific way of answering such a problem.

Anyway you should look for an expert in LINGUISTICS.

Should you have however other queries in Ancient Greek & Latin,  do not hesitate to ask me again.

Good luck!
Maria