Expert: Maria - 5/29/2007

Question
The second part of John 10:10 contains one "hina" before the "kai". There are 2 subjunctive verb following, again one before the kai and one after. It is even a repetition of the first verb.
egw hlyon ina zwhn ecwsin kai perisson ecwsin

could we say - "I am come (hina = purpose) so that they shall keep having life and that those who have this life MAY (potential) have abundance."

My question is - Could the hina apply only to the first subjunctve verb thus making it a cause or purpose,- and since the second subjunctive verb has no hina it should retain the true subjunctive nature of possibility.

That would seem to fit in with the New Testaments' teaching that we can have eternal life without having an abundant life here and now.  "Happy are ye if ye DO this things." or "If these things be in you and abound, they make you."?
"Ye ask and do not receive because ye ask amiss."

Thanks so much!

Answer
Hello,

The phrase you mention in John 10:10 :”egò élthon hina zoèn échosi kai perissòn échosin”(Latin transliteration) means literally:
”I came so that they have life and have it to the full”
or:
“I have come so that they have life and have it abundantly”.

See also Latin Vulgate by St.Jerome where we read:

”Ego veni ut vitam habeant et abundantius habeant”
which is the literal translation of the Greek text.

In ancient Greek in fact the conjunction “hina” plus the subjunctive  is a purpose clause.

In this context there are two  subjunctives present, i.e. ‘echosi’ / ‘echosin’ ( both meaning “they have“) and only one conjunction, i.e. “hina”, simply because it was absolutely useless  to repeat this conjunction.

Therefore the ‘hina’  does not apply only to the first subjunctve verb, but also to the second subjunctive.

This from the point of view of the ancient Greek syntax and grammar, which are my field of expertise, of course.

As for a religious exegesis of John 10:10, I’m sorry, but I cannot help you as my knowledge focuses on the Greek text whose interpretation is univocal, as the Greek phrase in John 10:10 can mean only :

”I came so that they have life and have it to the full”
or:
“I have come so that they have life and have it abundantly”.

Best regards,
Maria
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Grammatical analysis.

-Egò = I

-élthon (aorist, 1st.person singular of the verb ‘erchomai’) = came / have come.

-hina = so that

-zoèn (accusative case of 'zoé') = life

-échosi ( subjunctive present, 3rd.person plural of the verb ‘echo’) = they have

-kai  = and

-perissòn ( adverb)  = to the full /abundantly

-échosin (subjunctive present, 3rd.person plural of the verb ‘echo’) = they have.

Note that  ‘echosi’ / ‘echosin’ are the same form of subjunctive present, 3rd.person plural of the verb ‘echo’. The only one difference is the last ‘n’  in ‘echosin’, as the verb is at the end of the phrase.

Unfortunately I could not use the Greek alphabet as the system does not allow it.