Hi Rev, i just want to ask something about the baptism. Somewhere in the gospels Jesus said that Peter will go and baptize the people who believes in the name of the Father, Son and Holy spirit. But somewhere in Acts we read that Peter baptized these people in the name of Jesus Christ only. It means that the statement of Jesus Christ in the Gospel was just a statement or we should be baptized according to His statement rather than be baptized according to Peter's way of baptize in Acts?

Other than the Great Commission (Matthew 28:19) with its Trinitarian formula, baptisms in other New Testament instances are "in the name of Jesus" (or some variant). It's possible that even then the Trinitarian formula was used.

If it was not, then that must cast doubt on the words of the Great Commission - i.e. whether Jesus actually said it. The date of Matthew's gospel is a factor, with many scholars thinking it is from the late first century.

The Didache, early Christian teaching from around AD70, has the Trinitarian formula (but also references baptism in the name of the Lord) - this may support the idea that "in the name of Jesus" could still be by using the Trinitarian formula.
 See 7.10 and 9.10  (NB not all translations use the same numbering)  


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Rev Steve Parish


I hope to answer questions on the theology, history, and constitution (there isn`t one!) of the Church of England (but not necessarily on the wider Anglican Communion)


A priest in the Church of England for over 30 years, with some specialist knowledge of the 19th century
I hold a Master's degree in Applied Theology
Church Times; Church of England Newspaper; Lion Encyclopedia of the Bible

Church Times; Church of England Newspaper; Lion Encyclopedia of the Bible

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