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Question
Can you give advice on solving this problem?

Determine the magnetic field of a cylindrically symmetric configuration as a function of distance from the axis, r:
B(r) = B_z(r)z^ + B_phi(r)phi^  and assuming a force-free field configuration of: curl B = alpha B where we assume that alpha(r) = alpha_0.

Answer
Hello again,

This problem is actually relatively straightforward.

The first thing to note is the force-free configuration and in this case: curl B(r) = alpha(r) B(r) = alpha_0 B(r)

note that when 'alpha' is denoted below it will be taken to mean 'alpha_0', when B is used it is taken to be B(r) to avoid excessive notational clutter.

Now, you have to start first with the curl:

In matrix format:

Curl B =

(1/r r^     phi^           z^)

(@/@r    @/@phi          @/@z)

(0        rB_phi         B_z)


where ‘@’ denotes the partial derivative symbol. Note that your B(r) is a function of only *two* components, in phi^ and z^ - there is no r^ component. Thus, the above matrix takes this into account. Indeed, 1/r r^ -> 0.

Taking each coordinate curl remaining:


Curl B_phi =

(-@ B_z/@r) phi^


Curl B_z =

[1/r (@/@r(rB_phi)]z^


Two ways to work it:

1)Straight forward use of partial derivatives which reduce to normal derivatives

(*Why* are the curl B_r terms omitted?)

A)   alpha (B_phi) =  (-@ B_z/@r) phi^

B)   alpha(B_z) =  [1/r (@/@r(rB_phi)]z^

->

(B_phi) =  1/ alpha (-@ B_z/@r) phi^


substitute. above into equation (B):

alpha(B_z) =  [1/r (@/@r(r[(1/ alpha (-@ B_z/@r) phi^]]z^


x (-alpha)

-alpha^2 (B_z) =  -[1/r (@/@r(r[ (@ B_z/@r)]]z^

->

1/r  d/dr (r d B_z  / dr  )  - alpha^2 B_z        =   0

This equation has classical special function solutions!

2)Using vector identities:

The force-free field eqn. is:

Curl (B) = alpha (B)

Further working, by taking the curl of both sides, yields:

curl curl B  = curl alpha (B)

Which, via vector identity is:

DIV DIV B – DIV^2 B =  alpha  curl B

Into the above, substitute Curl (B) = alpha (B)  and DIV B = 0, to obtain:

DIV 2(B) = (alpha)^2 B

where 'DIV'  (“divergence”) is another vector operator.

From this, we can obtain:


DIV^ 2(B) - (alpha)^2 B = 0

In cylindrical geometry, one has:

DIV^2  =  1/r [@/ @r  ( r * @/ @r)]

and you ought to be able to satisfy yourself – with further working – that the end result is the same as in part (1). I suggest that to finish the working you get hold of the CRC Mathematical Handbook and look up 'special functions' and specifically "Bessel functions".

Hope this helps!  

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Philip A. Stahl

Expertise

I specialize in stellar and solar astrophysics. Can answer any questions pertaining to these areas, the spectroscopic analysis of stars – as well as the magneto-hydrodynamics of sunspots and solar flares. Sorry – No homework problems done or research projects! I will provide hints on solutions.

Experience

Have published papers on the relationship between sunspot morphology and solar flares; discovery of SID flares related to this, constructed computerized stellar models; MHD research.

Organizations
American Astronomical Society (Solar physics and Dynamical astronomy divisions), American Geophysical Union, American Mathematical Society, Intertel.

Publications
Solar Physics, Journal of the Royal Astronomical Society of Canada, Journal of the Barbados Astronomical Society, Meudon Solar Flare Proceedings (Meudon, France). Books: 'Selected Analyses in Solar Flare Plasma Dynamics', 'Physics Notes for Advanced Level'.

Education/Credentials
B.A. degree in Astronomy; M.Phil. degree in Physics - specializing in solar physics.

Awards and Honors
Postgraduate research award- Barbados government; Studentship Award in Solar Physics - American Astronomical Society

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