Expert: Philip A. Stahl - 8/28/2011

Question
QUESTION: Greetings,

I have a question about the paranormal in which I am unclear about.I have read a book and watch t.v perating to the statue of the Virgin Mary bleeding blodd from the eyes of the statue. Skeptics point out that a certain percentage is attribute to frauduent claims. But the remaining percent is unexplained. I am wondering what is your viewpoint upon this issue?

Thanks,


Edward Kwan

ANSWER: Hello,

The incidents pertaining to "bleeding Virgin Mary statues" are - in my opinion - all cases of misunderstood chemistry or physics. I highlighted this (in a Baltimore Evening Sun article, April 16, 1992) when some of the first such reports made their way into the headlines.

I observed that such "weeping" could easily be explained, for example, by paint solvents leaching out from the painted surfaces of statues under certain conditions of humidity and barometric pressure. Thus, a patently physical-chemical reaction had been accorded some "paranormal" umbrella.

Then again, yes, just like other incidents (such as 'flying saucers') a certain percentage can be traced to hoaxes or frauds. There is simply no end to human ingenuity when it comes to such fabrications.

As for a certain residue being "uneplained", sure. The same is true in regard to unidentified flying objects (estimated at 2-3% unexplained even after close investigation and scrutiny). But that doesn't mean the residue of those latter are genuine spaceshipe any more than the residue of unexplained BVM "weepings" are paranormal manifestations! The best way to approach the residual unexplained is therefore that a coherent and satisfying physical explanation hasn't been found *yet*.

To me, it is better to wait for that, as opposed to rushing to a paranormal judgment simply on the basis of an unusual phenomenon being (temporarily) inexplicable.

---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: I appreciate your response. I have another question to ask. Muslims claim that the Quran is the undoubted word of God. Can you proof that is not the case? Basically what I am looking for if there are textual contradictions in the holy book. May I also ask if you please do not use anti-muslim retoric so to keep it neutral as possible since we do not need to create any more wars than we already have now.

Thanks,

Edward Kwan

Answer
Hello,

Let's be clear that any religion can make any claim it wishes. You say that Muslims assert the Qu'ran is "the undoubted word of God" - but fundamentalist Christians (like my youngest brother) say the same thing. Who is correct? Which is correct?

No one can say because in the end all such revelatory books are relative, since none can prove its truth outside of its own domain.

I believe this is a function of the human brain being finite, limited in capacity. Hence, its concepts will be finite and limited. This means that those concepts - as created by limited brains in assorted scriptures- can't be absolute but only relative one to the other. The same, of course, applies to the god-concepts arising from the limited brain's use of language.

In this sense, it's not possible to "prove" the claim of a holy book's inerrancy -- whether Christian Bible or Muslim Qu'ran - is not the case. For one thing, that amounts to trying to prove a negative, which is logically impossible.

For another, one would need to resort to logic for a disproof (even assuming such was possible) and the religious believer simply doesn't operate in the rigorous logical realm.

Hope this helps, and btw, you did not have to warn me against "using anti-Muslim" rhetoric, as even though I'm an atheist, I'm not a bigot!