Expert: Dr Don Howe - 3/24/2010

Question
QUESTION: Dear Dr. Howe,
I recently finished reading a book that made the following claim about Mark 16:16: (paraphrasing)

Greek grammarians from all backgrounds have upheld that aorist participles cannot occur in time after the main verb in the sentence in which they appear. In Mark 16:16, there are two aorist participles ("believeth" and "is baptized"). There is a main verb, "shall be saved." It is impossible for "believeth" and "is baptized" to occur in time after the main verb---it is instead required by the Greek use of the participles that they occur either before, or at, the time of the main verb.

Do you agree with this? If it were true, what is the implication regarding Mark 16:16 and what it teaches? And please elaborate as you see fit.

Many thanks,
Mike

ANSWER: Mike, thank you for your question. Your question is a deep one so let's roll up our britches and get-er done. I believe it would help to go back to Mark 16:5 and see what is going on leading up to Jesus’ dealing with the unbelief of the disciples. In bible interpretation you always have to keep thing in context, context, context of what is going on. Can not take one verse a build a thesis. God is bigger than that.
  We have to note that Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of James, and Salome saw the young man dressed in white in the tomb (Mk. 16:5) and the young man told these 3 women to tell the disciples and Peter that Jesus is risen and Jesus would see them in Galiee (Mk 16:7). The women went away and said nothing to no man, and they did not discuss it among themselves. This does not mean that they did report what they saw (Lk 24:9-10 tells us they did report to the disciples what they saw).
  Mary Magdelene saw Jesus (told more fully in Jn 20:11-18) and told the disciples that she saw Jesus; they did not believe her (Mk 16:11). Jesus appeared to them in Mk 16:12-13 as they walked on the road to Emmaus (told in Luke 24:13-27 also) and they still did not believe (“neither believed they them“). So by this time, one gets to Mk. 16:13, they have been told x 1 that Jesus is risen, and Jesus was seen in person x 1, and they did not believe. That is two different times and they did not believe.
  This is building up to Mk 16:16. So in Mk 16:14, Jesus appeared to the eleven while they ate meat and Jesus “upbraided them with their unbelief and hardness of heart.” These are harsh actions that Jesus did. Upbraided is oneidizō in the Greek which means reproach or to shame. So Jesus shamed or reproached the eleven because of their unbelief and hardness of heart because they rejected the two previous eye witness accounts (Mk. 16:11,13). So Jesus was not pleased with them. Their unbelief could not escape responsibility.


  In Mk. 16:15 “And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.” Jesus did not say “pretty please” but directly said go into all the world and preach the gospel. This is a command. Same command He tells us everyday “go.” Mike remember “The idea of a faith that would go into all the world wasn’t a part of the Jewish thinking of Jesus’ day. It wasn’t part of the pagan thinking either. It was revolutionary idea in its time“ (David Guzik).


  In Mk 16:16 states “He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.” The “believeth” and “is baptized” is both aorist participles which  is relative to the time of the main verb rather than the time of the speaker, which “believeth” and “is baptized” happens before the future indicative tense of the verb “shall be saved.” So it is belief in Jesus that makes one saved. If one believes in Jesus as Lord then he is baptized out of obedience. Being baptized is based on believing. “Believeth” shows faith in Christ and “is baptized” shows obedience and he who does these will be saved.
  He that “believeth not shall be damned” which means judgment worthy of punishment or eternal damnation.
  Some would say that belief and being baptized is necessary for salvation, but this is wrong. “He that believeth” and “is baptized” are two separate acts joined by the word “and.” So one has to believe first and then “is baptized” denotes obedience as result of that belief. Baptizing never saved one soul from going to Hell. It is in the belief  that saves and baptizing is a result of obedience to that belief.
  Wiersbe follows this same idea by stating “A superficial reading of Mark 16:15-16 would suggest that sinners must be baptized to be saved, but this misinterpretation disappears when you note that the emphasis is on believing. If a person does not believe, he is condemned, even if he has been baptized.”
  Robertson also states “The omission of baptized with “disbelieveth” would seem to show that Jesus does not make baptism essential to salvation. Condemnation rests on disbelief, not on baptism. So salvation rests on belief. Baptism is merely the picture of the new life not the means of securing it.”

  Mike, what is most important that is your are saved, accept Jesus as your Savior and Lord, have a relationship with Him, and serve Him in a local congregation.
  
  I hope this exposition will help you.

  May God Richly Bless You,


Dr Don Howe, RN, PhD, ThD







---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: Dr. Howe, RN, PhD, ThD,
Thanks for your response. However, I am puzzled. When you said,

"In Mk 16:16 states “He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.” The “believeth” and “is baptized” is both aorist participles which  is relative to the time of the main verb rather than the time of the speaker, which “believeth” and “is baptized” happens before the future indicative tense of the verb “shall be saved.”

...I did not get the part where you acknowledged that both believing and being baptized occur before "shall be saved" but concluded as follows:

"So it is belief in Jesus that makes one saved."

Wouldn't it be accurate to say that one who is saved is one who has both believed and been baptized? I don't see how it is possible that what was true of "believeth" in Mark 16:16 was not also true of "is baptized."

Do you see what I mean? Your thoughts?

Answer
  Mike let review Mark 16:16 again which states "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned." You have to keep this in contex that Jesus was responding (in Mk 16:16) to the unbelief of the eleven disciples for not believing about His resurrection from Mary Magdelane (Mk. 16:11) and Jesus appeared to the two at Emmaus and they "neither believed they them" (Mk. 16:13).
  The "believeth" and "is baptized" are AORIST PARTICIPLES IN THE PRESENT TENSE which occur  before  the FUTURE TENSE "shall be saved." What is the problem? This is easy to understand. One has to "believeth" first because that is what saves us. Note the word "is" occurs as an act of being baptized and is based on the first response of believing, but they are in present tense. One "is baptized" based on the belief, and because of that belief. It is the belief that saves and not being baptized. Baptism is outward sign of obedience to the ordinance based on ones belief. Being bapsized never saved anyone.
  If one says that "being baptized saves" you are adding works to the salvation experience and doing the same thing the Judiazers did. Judiazers said one could be saved based on belief in Jesus but they had "had to be circumcised." They were adding circumsions based on work salvation in additon to believing in Jesus. So when you say one has to be baptized to be saved then you are adding work salvation to the Salvation experience. Baptism is only the outward expression of obedience to the belief in Jesus as Savior and Lord.
  Eph. 2:8-9 states "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: [it is] the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast." It by the Grace of God that allowed His son to die for us on the Cross and we saved "through faith" and is not of yourselves by adding such things of works as "one has to baptized to be saved" or as the Judiazers said "one has to be circumsized." What gives you the authority to add baptism as a means of works so that one can be saved. It is not found anywhere in the Bible unless you take it out of context like you are doing in Mk. 16:16.  

  I also gave you the reference of Wiersbe and Roberston earlier which back up what I just told you.

Dr Don Howe, RN, PhD, ThD