Expert: Dr. Ronald E. Shultz - 9/21/2004

Question
While reading in preparation to teach a Sunday school class this week (a task for which I am pathetically under-qualified) I read about God's words to the people at the baptism of Jesus.  It occurred to me that God never again spoke to ordinary people in a literal, audible sense, and it seemed reasonable - once Jesus was baptized with the Holy Spirit, there was no longer a need for God to speak to people directly, as he often did in the Old Testament.  Further research showed me that God also spoke at Jesus' transfiguration, but curiously (at least to me) His words were the same as the words spoken at the baptism.  Why did He say the same thing on both of those occasions?  Were there other instances of God speaking to "ordinary" people, i.e., not Jesus, in the New testament?  I asked this same question of another Allexpert yesterday, and he wanted to argue with my motive for asking the question, so I like your warning that you're not in this for an argument.  Thank you for lending a hand for a fellow Allexpert (in aviation).

Answer
Sorry, I did not get this message until now. Experts had to send me an e-mail telling me it was here.

It is a perfectly honest question so I see no reason to argue.

I guess the simplest response is that God is not in a box and He can do what He wants when He wants. God from the begining has wanted to communicate with individuals.  Remember, He was talking to the children of Israel and they told Moses to have God only speak to him.  

This was a special circumstance when God was validating His Son's ministry.  When Moses died, God said that "Moses, My servant is dead, follow ye Joshua."  Both instances with Jesus are similar.  The Old Covenant was dead and the people and the disciples needed to know that they were right to follow Jesus because He was the New Covenant.  

Jesus even said that if He only had His testimony it would not be enough since Jewish law required two or more witnesses to validate any testimony.   At the baptism, He had the Father, The Spirit and John as a testimony.  On the Mount, He had the Father, Moses and Elijah to bear witness to who Jesus was and His mission.  The Father spoke His testimony or witness and the others said "Amen" by their presence.  

Another instance may the call of Paul where He spoke to Paul directly and the others heard but did not understand. I reckon Paul might not be considered ordinary people just like John when He received the revelation.

Now, we are told expressly in Hebrews that God now speaks through Christ, but that is through the indwelling Spirit that He promised that He would send and of course, His written Word.  

Will Christ ever speak again audibly in this dispensation?  It does not seem likely, which is why when folks say they have spoken directly to God and gotten new revelation I am highly suspect.  One preacher said that if God were to speak again today He would only be repeating Himself and that seems to be the case.  There were 400 years of silence between Malachi and Matthew so we have precedence for Him speaking and then being silent.  He has spoken through the Son and His Word.  When He returns to rule, He will speak again.

Hopefully, this will be of some help to you. Blessings to you as you seek His will and study His word.