Expert: Cooper P. Abrams III - 1/19/2006

Question
My question put simply and straightforward: is polygamy in accordance with the Old and New Testament? Here are a few points that cause me to ask this question:

The patriarchs of the faith practiced polygamy.

Polygamy is not condemned by God in the Bible whereas He typically goes to great lengths to list in detail the types of unions that are sinful.  Large portions of the books of the law address unlawful/sinful unions, polygamy is never mentioned.

The patriarchs of the Jewish and Christian faiths, those who spoke directly with God and communed intimately with Him, were never charged with any wrongdoing for having multiple wives. If anyone were to be chastised by God for an immoral lifestyle, I assume it would be them. Oddly, this is not the case with their multiple wives whereas all other aspects of their lives were closely scrutinized by God.  David, labeled by God as a man after his own heart, was heavily disciplined by God for an adulterous relationship, but his multiple wives were never called into question.

God rewarded David by giving him multiple wives. If polygamy is a sinful institution, why did God reward David by giving him that which is sinful (2 Sam. 12:8)? If having more than one wife is wrong, why did God himself give David, as a reward, a plural number of wives?  

The only place I really see polygamy prohibited is in the requirements to be a bishop and a deacon where Paul mentions that to hold either office a man must only be married to one wife (1Tim. 3:1-12). Here, Paul does not label polygamy as sinful but simply prohibits a polygamist from holding these two offices.  Simple rational could account for the banning of polygamists from these offices, since a man with only one wife would be much more available to the responsibilities versus a man with more than one wife.

The pat-answer to my question seems to be that God permitted the sin of polygamy for a time, giving in to man's insistence on the matter. I don't find this to be a strong argument in the context of the Bible and God's unchanging nature. For instance, if God simply “permitted” the patriarchs of the faith, those who were closest to him, to practice polygamy then I don't see why he'd have a problem with the practice today.  And what type of precedent in scripture is there for practices that are sinful and yet “permissible” at the same time- is polygamy the only such occurrence?  Permissible sin sounds like an oxymoron to me.  I simply don't see the Biblical basis for such a concept.

Lastly, Martin Luther himself acquiesced that he found nothing in the Bible to condemn polygamy:

I confess that I cannot forbid a person to marry several wives, for it does not contradict the Scripture.  If a man wishes to marry more than one wife he should be asked whether he is satisfied in his conscience that he may do so in accordance with the word of God.  In such a case the civil authority has nothing to do in the matter. (De Wette II, 459, ibid., pp. 329-330.)

Of course, Luther did disagree with the practice on political grounds, but let's be clear- Luther did not find anything in scripture to condemn polygamy.


Answer
Hi Aaron,
    Though certain O.T. believers practiced polygamy (Gen. 25:6; 35:22; Judges 8:31; 2 Sam. 5:13; 1 Ki. 11:3; 2 Ch. 11:21), it has always been condemned by God.  
    (1) God ordained one-woman, one-man marriage in the beginning (Gen. 2:20-24).
    (2) Polygamy originated with the son of rebellious Cain (Gen. 4:16-19).
    (3) Concerning David and other O.T. saints who had plural wives:
        (a) It resulted in much heartache and trouble (Gen. 16:1-6; 1 Sam. 1:2-8; 1 Ki. 11:1-8).
        (b) God had forbidden kings to multiply wives (Deut. 17:14,17). David, Solomon, and other kings who had multiple wives were living contrary to God's Word.
        (c) Most men of God even in the O.T. had only one wife. This is true for Adam (Gen. 2-4), Noah (Gen. 6:18), Isaac (Gen. 25:20-23), Joseph (Gen. 41:45), Moses (Exodus 2:21), Boaz (Ruth.. 4), Job (Job 1), Isaiah (Is. 8:3), and Hosea (Hosea 3:1-3).
   (4) There is no New Testamentexample of a godly Christian having more than one wife.
   (5) Those who have more than one wife today are forbidden to hold church leadership positions (1 Tim. 3:2,12; Titus 1:6).

     This shows that God is against polygamy and did not actually approve it.   The Law of Moses regulated polygamy without approving of it.  Those who practiced this were disobeying God, even though some were godly men. David and Solmon are key examples. They multiplied wives to himself in spite of God's command against this, but his lust and multiple wives also brought him into terrible grief in his family and in the nation of Israel.

   I hope this helps you understand this.  

Cooper Abrams
http://bible-truth.org