Expert: Pastor Don Carpenter - 1/7/2008

Question
QUESTION: Hello,

I can only find tithes in the O.T. being paid in a four part tithing system (1. tithes paid by the children of Israel to the Levite priest 2.  Levites paying tithes to the high priest  3.  tithes being paid to the poor  4. festival tithe) in the the form of edibles alongside a biblical monetary system.  

I would have thought the change was justified since we live in a multifunctional monetary society, but they had a monetary system in the O.T. as well.

Where in scripture did this change? ... and wasn't the taking up of tithes a covenant between God and the house of Levi to form the Levitical priesthood as part of service in the tabernacle?  Weren't tithes food compensation for the Levites since they had no inherentance or livelyhood?  Isn't tithing a part of the O.T. law?

Please assist.

ANSWER: Hi,

I am very sorry for my late response.  Tithes were given before hundreds of years before the law was even given, therefore tithes transcend the dispensation of the law.

Genesis 14:20
20 And blessed be the most high God, which hath delivered thine enemies into thy hand. And he gave him tithes of all.

The King James Version, (Cambridge: Cambridge) 1769.

Tithes did serve to help the temple system, but that was not the only thing that it did.  We do know that we are told to give the firstfruits of all our increase, that is not just food, it is money.  Notice that the man who talked to Jesus was faithful in tithing all his increase.
Luke 18:12
12 I fast twice in the week, I give tithes of all that I possess.
The King James Version, (Cambridge: Cambridge) 1769.

As money become more cash oriented rather than livestock oriented, so the tithe started to look different.  The tithe was always 10% of one's net gain.

I hope that this helps you.

In Christ
Pastor Don




---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: A late response is never a problem as the people of God are busy!  :-)   

What I am seeing here is tithing was a tradition throughout  the I & II Babylonian rule, Egypt, Persia, China etc ... and that Abraham gave a 10th of a spoils of war (food) to a man not God, nor can I find scripture confirming God commanded it.  Abraham didn't keep the 90%,it wasn't regular income nor can I find record of Abraham doing this before or after this instance.  I cannot see how this mirrors what we are taught in Christendom pertaining to the mandate of tithes.  You say it is money, but where do we ever see tithes paid in monetary form in scripture?  "All I possess" doesn't confirm a monetary tithe, but even at that ... the man speaking to Jesus tells me the law was still in effect because Jesus' work on the cross wasn't finished.  Jesus confirmed in Matthew 23:23 that tithing was a part of Mosaic law and I have learned enough to know we are no longer under the law.  Even though the practice of giving a tithe was done before the law it was funneled into the law.  How can the tithe be biblical unless it is given to a Levite priest.  Can you find anyone authorized to take up tithes other than the Levite as it was stated "that my covenant be with Levi" and "that they may minister unto me" I am just not seeing in scripture what you are saying.

I saw they had their own monetary system alongside the tithing system (4 parts), so wouldn't God have commanded it if He wanted a monetary transition?.  What about the poor who never paid tithes?  

The firstfruits scripture doesn't mention a tenth.

Answer
There are many good bible scholars who believe like you do that tithing was only a law issue and we are free from such a commandment.  I do not subscribe to that because there was tithing mentioned before the law.  You say that this is a special thing... perhaps... but it was tithing.  Your arguments do have merit.  I would not separate over shuch an issue.  When we all come down to it, each man needs to be fully pursuaded in his own mind.  Thanks for your thoughtful and persuasive points.

In Christ
Pastor Don