Expert: Rick Bundy - 8/31/2008

Question
Please, please respond so that I can correct a group of +40 men (I'm sorry to say) who misinterpret these baseball basics...

Bases loaded...one, or even no outs.

Ground ball is hit to third baseman who fields the ball at the bag before the runner on third ever even reacts quickly enough to leave the bag.

Third baseman tags runner (who is still standing on the bag), then steps on third base claiming a double play.

Please explain why this is not so. As you and I know, the tag of the runner meant nothing and the runner approaching third from second is the only runner who is out by virtue of the force out, which removed the runner on third's obligation to advance.

Answer
Bernard:  Great question, and one I am sure generates a lot of discussion.

Rule 7.01 says ~ A runner acquires the right to an unoccupied base when he touches it before he is out.  He is then entitled to it until he is put out, or forced to vacate it for another runner legally entitled to that base ~

As soon at the batter/runner puts the ground ball in play, all 3 runners are in a force situation.

The umpires' call is determined by which order the fielder, in this case the third baseman, executes his/her options.

In your situation, tagging the runner on 3B first, would leave the force at third base in tact, even if the runner on third was standing on the bag.  The ground ball created a force on all 3 runners, whether he chose to run or not.  He was no longer entitled to that base, that entitlement had passed to the runner coming from second.  He would only be safe on 3B, if the third baseman touched the base first and then tagged him.

If the third baseman tags 3B first in that scenario, the force is immediately erased at home, and that runner on third is able to remain there.

Hope this helps sort the situation out.

Yours in baseball,

Rick