Expert: Andrew Senger - 9/13/2010

Question
Runner on 1st with 1 out. Runner attempts to steal 2nd while pitcher is in delivery motion. The pitch is a dropped 3rd strike. Batter attempts to reach first base on dropped 3rd strike and is put out by a throw down to first. If the runner on first was already 1/2 way to 2nd when the dropped 3rd strike occurred, is first base still considered occupied and did the 1st base occupy situation not applied here?

Thank you,

Mike

Answer
Mike,

The determination is made by the runner's position at the time of the pitch. I doubt the runner had touched second base before the pitcher began his pitching motion.

Therefore, the batter would have been out immediately on the dropped third strike.