Expert: Brian Flaspohler - 4/16/2004

Question
Situation: Nobody on, nobody out and the batter has an 0-2 count.  The pitch is low, so the batter takes. However, the ball gets past the catcher.  Seeing the ball was not caught, the batter swings late.  He then runs safely to first base.  Will the batter be awarded first base or can the umpire rule that the batter's intent was to take the pitch for a ball (and the count is now 1-2)?

Thanks,
Brian

Answer
Brian,

If the umpire has already called a ball, he will not change his call because the batter swings late at a pitch.  However, if the umpire sees the swing and calls a strike, and the ball gets away from the catcher, then the batter can advance to first.

Basically, it depends on how late the batter swings and how quick the umpire determines if the pitch is a ball or strike.  There is a weasel word in the definition of strike in the rulebook which says (paraphrased by me) 'The pitch is a strike if it meets one of the following conditions and the umpire says it is.'  So the rule book implys that even if it meets one of the conditions (one of which is that the batter swings and misses at the ball) the umpire could possibly still rule it a ball.

Hope this helps!

Brian