Expert: Edward Bode - 8/15/2007

Question
QUESTION: Hi Edward,
I have a question about 1 Cor 7:10. In the Greek, a portion of that verse says in the Greek interlinear, "...a woman is not to be separated from her husband." Is "to be separated" (Xoristhanai - something like that) refering to an action on the part of the woman or that she is undergoing an action imposed on her.

Thanks!
David


The phrasDoes this indictate an action on the part of the woman or that the woman is undergoing the action she has not initiated?

ANSWER: The Greek is a passive form.  However, the usual interpretation of a passive of this verb is: to separate oneself.  Most comentators view the phrase as  referring to the woman's decision to leave her husband.
I hope this helps, Dave.  If you want further comment, please feel free to write again.
Best wishes.

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QUESTION: Thank you for the quick response!

It doesn't make sense to me for chOristhEnai to mean "to separate oneself" when it's a passive form. If the word ChOrisai (to separate) was used instead, I wouldn't have any problem believing it was her decision to leave. The way it reads it seems to imply that the woman should not be subjected to separation. It's like saying, "a baby is not to be separated from it's mother." No one would take this to mean that a baby would decide to leave it's mother, but that the baby should not be subjected to separation.

I appreciate your time.
David
ANSWER: Two reasons recommend a middle voice interpretation in the verse: 1 -- context of the woman and the man making a decision [the woman is not to decide to leave]; 2 -- grammaticaly, the passive form of this verb can have a middle voice meaning: I separate myself [cf. F. Zorell, Lexicon Graecum Novi Testamenti (Paris: Lethielleux, 1961), column 1464].  Zorell is an eminent scholar of Koine Greek.
For such reasons, most vernacular translators [including the Vulgate]give the decision to the woman.
Hope these further thoughts help.  If not, let me know.
Again, best wishes.

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QUESTION: So, the woman is not to decide to leave or separate is the gist of that phrase. Is that correct? If so, does this mean she has only separated with no intention to divorce, or does it mean divorce?
Yes, it is helping.. :_)
Best wishes to you as well, Edward


ANSWER: I believe that the answer to your question is verse 11 -- remain single or be reconciled.
You are welcome to comment or ask further.

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QUESTION: If her separation indicates divorce, then why would she have to remain single and if she is single, she wouldn't have a husband to be reconciled to. If divorce severs the bond, the man would no longer be her husband.
I really don't know the history of the culture, so I don't know if I've missing something here.  

Answer
The background for the passage is Jesus' teaching that prohibits divorce.  If a wife separates herself from [leaves the home of]her husband, she cannot consider herself divorced from him -- she is not free to remarry [7:11].  Since she is not free, the bond remains and has not been broken.
I hope these thoughts have helped to clarify the message.  If not, let me know.