Expert: Brenda Martin - 5/26/2009

Question
I have read and I have discussed these passages with others but I have yet to satisfy my mind on the subject.  I am hoping you can help me put it to rest.  The passage says,"the sons of God saw the daughters of men...and they took them as wives".  The Nephilim (giants) appeared on earth after this took place.  I am being told that the sons of God are fallen angels who came down and had relations with the the daughters of men.  Angels are sexless,sinless and they neither marry or are given in marriage. Fallen angels have sinned however it is incomprehensible to me that any angelic being, fallen or otherwise, can assume full maleness and have relations with a human female and get her pregnant.  It goes against God's ordained orders of creation and the laws that govern sex in the human order, as quoted from Unger's commentary.  I just can't wrap my mind around the idea of angelic beings impregnating human beings.  It goes against the grain and I can't grasp it.
If you can explain it to me in an understanding way I would greatly appreciate it.


Answer
Hi David, you said--"IT IS INCOMPREHENSIBLE TO ME THAT ANY ANGELIC BEING, FALLEN OR OTHERWISE, CAN ASSUME FULL MALENESS AND HAVE RELATIONS WITH A HUMAN FEMALE AND GET HER PREGNANT? IT GOES AGAINST GOD'S ORDAINED ORDERS OF CREATION AND THE LAWS THAT GOVERN SEX IN THE HUMAN ORDER".

God did not create angels with a desire for sexual relations with humans. Yet Satan evidently was able to get some of them to think improperly about such matters. Thus within certain angels a desire was cultivated for something that God purposed only humans should enjoy within the proper bounds of marriage. (Genesis 6:2)

Such action was motivated by a wrongly cultivated desire, not a natural desire put in them by God. Since angels can develop such unnatural sexual desires, we should not be surprised that humans can as well. Writing under inspiration, the disciple Jude drew a parallel between the angels who desired the daughters of men and certain humans who became passionately involved with persons of their own sex. He wrote:

““The angels that did not keep their original position but forsook their own proper dwelling place he has reserved with eternal bonds under dense darkness for the judgment of the great day. So too Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities about them, after they in the same manner as the foregoing ones had committed fornication excessively and GONE OUT AFTER FLESH FOR UNNATURAL USE, are placed before us as a warning example by undergoing the judicial punishment of everlasting fire.”—Jude 6, 7.

These “sons of the true God” WERE angels from heaven who materialized as humans and roamed the earth as MEN, now as “men” they could & did have relations with women.

From that time onward however these “demons” no longer have the power to materialize human bodies. At 1 Peter 3:19, 20 the debased spirit creatures are referred to as “spirits in prison, who had once been disobedient when the patience of God was waiting in Noah’s days, while the ark was being constructed.” Thus the Bible makes it plain that after the Flood the “angels that sinned” came under a form of restraint. There is no Biblical indication that they were able to materialize and take up visible activity on earth after the Flood. So it logically follows that the restraint under which they came made it impossible for them to take on flesh again.

Two other points to consider also; the inspired word of God says they did; so do we believe “ALL scripture is inspired of God” (2 Timothy 3; 16) & secondly, what were these “sons of the true God” if not angels?

All the best
Brenda