AboutDean Gade Expertise I can answer questions concerning the translating of specific words and translations of the New Testament. I can give the etemology of Greek words, primarily in the Koine Greek, but also in Classical Greek. I can also give explanations of much of the Bible having read it many times and written many Bible studies.
Experience I studied Greek in earning my BA at a university and my DTh. and MDiv. at an accredited seminary. I was a diviity student at both the university and seminary, spending most of those eight years studying the Bible.
Question QUESTION: Acts and Mathew are in disagreement about some of the facts related to the death of Judas. Is this problem related to translation or is there the same contradiction in the original text?
What did Judas do with his reward? Who bought the Field of Blood? Why is it called the Field of Blood? How did Judas die?
Thanks for your time,
Kevin
ANSWER: The Luke, the writer of Acts, correctly tells what Peter stated even though Peter had heard an incorrect account. Peter's account is what others told him concerning Judas' death. He was not there when Judas threw the money back or when he killed himself.
Peter was often brash in his speech and this could have been one of those times....or it could be that he is being derisive, saying that all Judas got as a reward for his evil was a "potter's field", a place to bury the indigent.
Evidently, Peter also heard that Judas had fallen and was burst open because of his fall.
Matthew, writing by inspiration, gives us the real account; that Judas threw the money back at the chief priests and elders who went and bought the field. And then Judas went and hung himself.
Only Jesus always spoke by inspiration:
Jn 12:47-50
47 "As for the person who hears my words but does not keep them, I do not judge him. For I did not come to judge the world, but to save it. 48 There is a judge for the one who rejects me and does not accept my words; that very word which I spoke will condemn him at the last day. 49 For I did not speak of my own accord, but the Father who sent me commanded me what to say and how to say it. 50 I know that his command leads to eternal life. So whatever I say is just what the Father has told me to say."
NIV
The writers of the Bible are accounted as being inspired as they wrote the Scripture and only in a few other places is it stated that they spoke from God....as Jesus did say of Peter himself at one time:
Mt 16:16-18
16 Simon Peter answered, "You are the Christ , the Son of the living God."
17 Jesus replied, "Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah, for this was not revealed to you by man, but by my Father in heaven.
NIV
BUT, a few moments later Jesus tells Peter that he is speaking from the devil:
Mt 16:22-23
22 Peter took him aside and began to rebuke him. "Never, Lord!" he said. "This shall never happen to you!"
23 Jesus turned and said to Peter, "Get behind me, Satan! You are a stumbling block to me; you do not have in mind the things of God, but the things of men."
NIV
It is believed that the field which had been owned by a potter was called the "field of blood" because of its connection to the shedding of Christ's blood on the cross and Judas' part in His blood being shed. Others say that it was to commemorate the "blood money" which bought the field.
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QUESTION: Thanks very much for your informative answer. This opens up a very intersting question. What does "inspired" mean? That is, does it mean "the word of God" and God is responsible for the accuracy? Can there be "inspired" parts that are an accurate description of the inaccurate things that an uninspired person said? How do we know what parts of the Bible to believe?
Thanks for your time,
Kevin
Answer To start with I must admit that I don't understand "how" God accomplished what He did in having the Bible written by men.
The word used in the Bible concerning scripture is "Theopneustos" : "Theo" is "God" "Pneuma" mean: "Spirit, wind, breath"
Translations vary:
2 Ti 3:16-17
16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.
NKJV
2 Ti 3:15-4:1
16 All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work.
RSV
2 Ti 3:15-17
16 All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, 17 so that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work.
NIV
The vocabulary and style of the writers is different in the original languages, yet the message from Genesis to Revelation is the same. This tells me that though God used various writers, He allowed their personalities to remain intact in the NT. In the OT He usually just said "Write!" and it was word for word. But both the OT and NT forms have in common that God "moved" those who wrote
2 Pe 1:19-21
19 And we have the word of the prophets made more certain, and you will do well to pay attention to it, as to a light shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star rises in your hearts. 20 Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet's own interpretation. 21 For prophecy never had its origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit.
NIV
So, yes, the Bible (in its original languages) is correct; even when it reports the lies of the devil or reports what just plain imperfect people speaking without the inspiration of God said.
Having been a Bible student since my university days (graduated as a four year religion major in 1959, a four year post-graduate study at Concordia Theological Seminary graduate in 1963 and a constant student and teacher ever since) I am convinced that the unity of the Bible shows One authorship.
[ At the university I attended many of the professors did teach according to the Redactor view of the Bible (J, E, P, D...or "Higher Critical Method of Bible Study" as opposed to what the Bible says of itself.]
In answer to your last question:
It takes a lot of study of the whole Bible and a good deal of understanding what God was saying when it was written and what He wants us to know now of Him, ourselves, others, His present relationship with us and the future..... before we know which parts were for an particular era;
which parts were for a particular person;
and with parts are universal for all times and all people.
I seldom miss a day of studying the Bible. For me, it's almost "for the fun of it": I enjoy it and I enjoy knowing God and all His promises to me and others more and more:
Eph 3:14-19
14 For this reason I kneel before the Father, 15 from whom his whole family in heaven and on earth derives its name. 16 I pray that out of his glorious riches he may strengthen you with power through his Spirit in your inner being, 17 so that Christ may dwell in your hearts through faith. And I pray that you, being rooted and established in love, 18 may have power, together with all the saints, to grasp how wide and long and high and deep is the love of Christ, 19 and to know this love that surpasses knowledge — that you may be filled to the measure of all the fullness of God.
NIV
Again I say, I don't know HOW God inspired the Bible but I am sure of it and very happy that He did.
