Expert: Edward Bode - 8/8/2009

Question
QUESTION: Hello. My name is James. I would like to know who the persons are to whom Apostle John refers in 1Jn 1:4 when he writes, “We write this to make our joy complete.” Are these other Apostles? If the date of this epistle is A.D. 85, then are there other apostles still alive? Or is he referring to other eyewitnesses of Jesus? From 1John 2:1 and 2:13, I infer that Apostle John is the penman of this Epistle. Why, then, does he say, “WE write this”? Thank you in advance for your help.

ANSWER: I understand the "we" of 1 John chapter 1 as John associating himself with other guardians of Christian tradition [including the eyewitnesses] who handed on that tradition to others.  John often used "I" in direct address or exhortation.
Paul also refers to tradition, for example, in regard to the Eucharist [I Cor 11:23 ff] and the death and resurrection of Jesus [1 Cor 15:3 ff].
I hope these thought are helpful.  If you wish more, please feel free to write again.
Best wishes, James.

---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: Thank you for your reply. At the start of the epistle, the persons referred to as "we" are stated as having heard, seen and touched Jesus (55 years ago). It says, "...which WE have heard, which WE have seen with our eyes, which WE have looked at and our hands have touched..." How can this group include non-eyewitnesses? Apostle John's proclamation here is that Jesus, the Word, came in the flesh. He is asserting that this is an incontrovertible fact on account of eyewitness testimony. It would seem dishonest if he was really referring here, not to eyewitnesses, but guardians of a tradition that Jesus came in the flesh. And his claim would not have much force if he is the last remaining eyewitness. Thank you in advance for your help.

Answer
At least we agree that the We refers to eyewitnesses.  However, I do think that the apostolic testimony that comes from those eyewitnesses is also included in 1 John introduction.  The traditions to which I referred go back to the original witnesses.
Also, many see in 1:1 a reference to the notion of the Word as found in the intro of John's Gospel.  Certainly, no human was there in the begfining with the eternal Word.
Hope this clarifies my thought.
Again best wishes, James.