Expert: J.M.J. West - 1/10/2010

Question
Hey there! :-) As a part of my new years resolution, I have decided to read the Bible in its entirety and actually get any questions I have answered, instead of just letting them sit there (which I made the mistake of doing last year as part of a reading plan!). So I'm sorry to say that you might just be so unlikely to have to put up with a few more questions from me over the year! haha :) I'll be writing them all down in a book, (hopefully) along side their answers to make sure that I stick to it!

I've only recently gone from being a "Christian" who did his own thing to dedicating my life to Christ and getting stuck into his word, so I'm sorry if some of my questions come off as a bit silly! :)

Well, here we go! :)

1. In Genesis 1:11, God produces plants. However, in Genesis 2:4-5 it says that there are no plants. What am I missing here?

2. In Genesis 10:9, the phrase "before the Lord" is used. Does this mean literally BEFORE the Lord, i.e. existing before he did, or does it mean 'in front of' the Lord? I'm leaning towards the 2nd one, because it obviously makes more sense, but different translations of the Bible couldn't help me clear this one up!

3. In Genesis 12:17-19, how did the Pharaoh know where the diseases came from? Why did God punish the Pharaoh even though he didn't willfully sin, but Abimelech get away with it in Genesis 20:6?

Thanks in advance. All insight is greatly appreciated :)

God Bless,
Chris

Answer
Q1. In Genesis 1:11, God produces plants. However, in Genesis 2:4-5 it says that there are no plants. What am I missing here?

A1: Genesis 1 and Genesis 2 present two different creation accounts.  In one man is created at the end, as the final capstone of all creation, in the second man is created before all things, and all things are created for man.  They are not trying to relate literal biological history, an so many people have been mislead by trying to approach them as such.  At the very least one is not literally true (but may be true, nevertheless, in a real way, relating the truth of a primordial historic fact which did happen and explains us), thought it could be using metaphoric language to relate a real even (like saying our football team "Slaughtered" their opponents - one wouldn't expect to actually see one's opponents bodies dismemberd and strewn across the field)


Q2. In Genesis 10:9, the phrase "before the Lord" is used. Does this mean literally BEFORE the Lord, i.e. existing before he did, or does it mean 'in front of' the Lord? I'm leaning towards the 2nd one, because it obviously makes more sense, but different translations of the Bible couldn't help me clear this one up!

A2:
The hebrew word here is "paniym" and it means not before chronologically, but merely something akin to in front of.

Q3a. In Genesis 12:17-19, how did the Pharaoh know where the diseases came from?

A3a: The text is unclear.  I messenger (Angel), a sign, or any such thing coul dhave been used.  The scriptures even are clear that the pagan practices of those in the land (and at this time there WAS no "true religion" for God had had only limited dealings with his people in Adam, Noah, and now Abraham.

Q3b. Why did God punish the Pharaoh even though he didn't willfully sin, but Abimelech get away with it in Genesis 20:6?

A3b:  God gives the reason that the latter had a "clear conscience".  It may imply more of the general moral character of those inquestion, but the best we can do is speculate in a manner consistent with the whole of scripture.

Hope that helps.
-J.M.J. West