Expert: Edward Bode - 1/22/2010

Question
QUESTION: Luke1:43 When Elizabeth said "the mother of my lord" was she refering to the God of the Old Testament or just to the Messiah?

ANSWER: While "Lord" can have several meanings in the New Testament and Luke, the context here recommends "God" [as in the Greek Old Testament]. The expected Messiah was not expected to be true God as well as true man.
Hope these thoughts help.  If not, feel free to write again.
Best wishes, Al.

---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: Let me understand you.If the context recommends "God" then does it mean that Elizabeth was saying as a Jew "the mother of the God of Abraham,Issac and Jacob?"

Answer
"Kyrios" appears 718 times in the NT; 103 in Luke.  To study all the occurences and its many meanings would be worth a disertation, if one has not already been done.
Can we rule out that God may have inspired Elizabeth with a prophetic insight into the status of Mary and her infant?  That would indicate a literal meaning to her greeting as I said previously..
Moreover, since very early times, and officially since the early fourth century, the Church has recognized Mary as the Mother of God.  So, at least in the "fuller sense" of Elizabeth's greeting is a recognition of Mary's unique role. ["fuller sense" means in the light of complete revelation in the mind of God.]
So, I do stand by my original response -- a recognition of Mary as carrying a divine Child.
As always, if you wish to write again, please do so.
Best wishes, Al.