Expert: Scott Talbot - 12/21/2010

Question
In (NIV) Malachi 3:1 the bible says “I will send my messenger, who will prepare the way before me”.  But when this verse is quoted in the (NIV) Mark 1: 2 & Matthew 11:10 the 1st person (before me) is changed to 2nd person (before you).  Can you explain why?

Answer
Hi Lenin,

Please forgive me for taking so long to get back to you. For some reason I did not receive your question until just now.

In the passages you quoted, there is a reference made to a messenger, and the one for whom preparation is made by the messenger. The messenger is John the Baptist, and the one who is coming is Jesus the Messiah.

In Malachi 3:1, God is making the statement. As He is referring to Jesus, and He and Jesus (and the Holy Spirit) are one and the same, He is referring to Himself. Therefore, He uses the word, "me."

In the New Testament passages, Matthew and Mark are making the statements in reference to Jesus, so they use the word, "you."

You will find that, when Scripture makes reference to other Scriptures, such as in the case of fulfilled prophecy, it does not always quote the passage verbatim. Sometimes it's a paraphrase. Also, keep in mind that minor differences can occur simply due to translation. In the case of a New Testament passage quoting an Old Testament passage, the Hebrew is translated to Greek, and then both the Hebrew and Greek are translated to English (or whatever other language).

Have a Merry Christmas, my friend!

Scott