Expert: Rev C.Brian Ross - 6/25/2010

Question
QUESTION: Hi, I've been reading the bible lately and I've found the verses 1 John 2:22-23 NIV version that states: "Who is the liar? It is the man who denies that Jesus is the Christ. Such a man is the antichrist-he denies the Father and the Son. No one who denies the Son has the Father; whoever acknowledges that the Son has the Father also."

I thought that the Jews were the choosen people and I believe this fact is mentioned many times in the bible. And the Jewish faith clearly states that they see Jesus as nothing more than a man. Don't the verses I gave you contradict this? I'm kind of confused about this.

ANSWER: Hi Zoe.

Thank you for your question.

First of all, let me assure you that there is nothing anti-Semitic in this passage.  Indeed, the New Testament as a whole is not anti-Semitic, even 'though it criticises Jewish leaders.  However, Paul - one of the greatest converts from Judaism - writes "Dear brothers and sisters, the longing of my heart and my prayer to God is for the people of Israel to be saved. I know what enthusiasm they have for God, but it is misdirected zeal. For they don't understand God's way of making people right with himself. Refusing to accept God's way, they cling to their own way of getting right with God by trying to keep the law. For Christ has already accomplished the purpose for which the law was given. As a result, all who believe in him are made right with God." (Rom 10:1-4, NLT).  Where we do find anti-Semetism in the Bible is in the recorded words, and actions, of people like Haman (Esther 3:8ff).

As far as the meaning of John's words is concerned, he is referring to anyone who denies that Jesus is the Christ - and, therefore, God - regardless of whetehr they be Jew, Greek, Roman or, more specifically here, those who had succumbed to the teachings of Gnostics or Judaisers and who had turned their backs on the One Whom they had once served.  Such a denial is, as far as John is concerned, clear evidence that the speaker is under the control of the satan (the adversary; the antochrist).

The Jews were, and are, indeed the chosen people, and the inheritors of the covenants made with Abraham, Isaac, Israel (Jacob), and others in the Biblical record.  However, if you take the time to study those covenants, you will discover that they are 'two-way'.  In other words, the descendants of Israel had to keep their side of the covenant relationship.  Otherwise, the blessings would be exchanged for curses (see, for example, Lev.26:14ff).  As far as the writers of the New Testament (most of whom were, of course, converted Jews!) were concerned, the majority of their people had rejected the promised Messiah (Jesus) and had, therefore, aligned themselves with the antichrist - displaying his nature and characteristics so clearly as to be totally identified with him.  Of course, the Lord had, and has, always preserved for Himself a remnant who are true to Him - as in the modern movement of Messianic Jews (Jews who accept Jesus as Messiah, and Lord).  For this concept, refer to e.g. the prayer of Ezra the scribe (Ezra 9:6 ff).

So, to try to draw all of this together:
1. The Jews are, indeed, the Chosen people, but it is not those who are merely the physical descendants of Abraham who receive the blessing, but those who display his faith, and a righteousness that is not of works (Rom.4:1-3).
2. Anyone who denies that Jesus is God, is a manifestation of the Antichrist.  Such a person need not even claim that (s)he 'believes in God' because to deny One is to deny the Other (cf.James 2:19).
3. The corollary of this is stated - those who confess that Jesus is the Messiah are those who alone, can have any true knowledge of the Father (see Matt.11:27; Jn.14:6).
4. This applies, perhaps with even greater force, to those who, having once walked with Jesus, have turned their backs on Him.

I trust that this will have been of some assistance.  However, if I have not been as clear as I might have been, please feel free to come back with a supplementary question.

Blessings.

C.Brian Ross (Rev.)

I wouldn't argue with your comment, Zoe.  It's a serious business, denying the Lord; and it does put the person firmly in the devil's camp.

Blessings

CBR

---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: So contrary to your first answer, the verse is anti semitic?

Answer
No!  The situation is really quite simple.  Those who have accepted God the Son (Jesus) as Saviour and Lord, having confessed their own sinfulness, and acknowledged that His vicarious sacrifice is the only means of salvation; who have accepted that He is, indeed, God; and who confess Him before others; are those who, according to the inspired writing of John, are His.  Those who deny all of that - and the original 'target' was, as I have already mentioned, people who turned away from Him - are of the Antichrist.  There ethnic/social/religious background is, in fact, irrelevant.  The people about whom the words were originally written were just as likely to have been Gentiles as Jews prior to their claimed conversion to being disciples of Jesus.  Therefore, there is nothing anti-Semitic here.

Blessings

CBR

Hi Zoe!

Further to your latest response, perhaps I did only deserve '7' for Clarity (although I thought that I had explained the situation quite well!).

Anti-Semitism is, in modern parlance, that which is SPECIFICALLY AND SOLELY against Jews/Judaism.  The passage to which you have made reference is not SPECIFICALLY AND SOLELY against Jews, but against anyone - regardless of ethnic or religious background, and including professed atheists - who denies that Jesus is the Christ; the Messiah; God Incarnate.  It is not, therefore, anti-Semitic.  Rather, it is pro-Jesus.

I trust that, this time, I have made the situation perfectly clear!

Blessings

CBR