Expert: Edward Bode - 8/1/2010

Question
QUESTION: Shalom Edward,

Two important verses are the basis of my question:

Jeremiah 22:28  Is this man Koniyahu [KJV: Coniah] a despised, broken pot, an instrument nobody wants? Why are they being thrown out? Why are he and his offspring thrown out into a country they do not know?  29  Oh, land, land, land! Hear the word of ADONAI!  30  This what ADONAI says: "List this man as childless; he is a lifetime failure - none of his offspring will succeed, none will sit on David's throne or rule again in Y'hudah."

And

Matthew 1:11  Yoshiyahu was the father of Y'khanyahu [KJV: Jechonias] and his brothers at the time of the Exile to Bavel.

My question: Since Y'khanyahu (aka Coniah or Jechonias) was cursed and removed from the Davidic lineage of Mashiach, how can Y'shua (Jesus) be Mashiach seeing as Matthew traces his lineage through him?

Thanks

~ Yochanan

ANSWER: Shalom!
According to Jerimiah, Jeconiah was removed from the rule, the throne.  That removal does not take him out of the genealogy, the ancestry.
While Jesus' messiahship involves a Davidic genealogy [see also Lk 3:23ff], that ancestry is not the sole basis for his claim.  Jesus accepted the messiah connection [Mk 8:29 and parallels], but also received a divine stamp of approval, his resurrection [Mt 28:1ff and parallels].

I hope that these thoughts are of some help.  If you would like further from me, please feel free to write again.



---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: Thanks for your reply Edward.
Just to be clear, I'm not opposed to the idea of Y'shua as Mashiach. Just trying to better to understand this.

The difficulty still remains it seems. You wrote: That removal does not take him out of the genealogy, the ancestry.

But the prophet wrote exactly that: "...none of his offspring will succeed, none will sit on David's throne or rule again in Y'hudah."

How does that not take him out of the ancestry?

Y'shua's lineage is traced through Y'khanyahu by Matthew and the prophet says none of his descendants will sit on the Throne of David.

Perhaps you can expand on this for me?

Shalom,
~ Yochanan

ANSWER: I interpret Jeremiah's three phrases as an example of the established Jewish figure of parallelism, that is, that repetitions of phrasing express the same concept. So, Jeremiah's three phrases are different ways of expressing the same concept, which can be understood as referring to ruling. The explanation of the first phrase is explained by the second and third phrases, which clearly refer to ruling.  
Also, this interpretation keeps the saying in agreement with Matthew and other NT thought.  One of the basic ideas of interpretation is to find a reasonable [legitimate]explanation of all relevant passages so as to preserve a unified message since God is not the author of contradictions.
I hope these thoughts help.  If not, you are welcome to continue our discussion.
Shalom.

---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: Thanks again,

Maybe I'm missing something but I still don't see how this answer explains: none of his offspring will succeed, none will sit on David's throne or rule again in Y'hudah."

Sitting on David's Throne and ruling Judea is the essential task of Mashiach.

---  One of the basic ideas of interpretation is to find a reasonable [legitimate]explanation of all relevant passages so as to preserve a unified message since God is not the author of contradictions.

A legitimate explanation must answer to the components of the verse, which says none will sit on David's throne.

Anyway, thanks for your answer,

~ Yochanan

Answer
Let me say what I meant in another way:
What exactly does "offspring not succeed" mean?  The answer appears in the next two parallel and explanatory phrases -- they will not become rulers on the throne of Juda.  
"Succeed" does not necessarily rule out a future Messiah.  I think that what I suggested is a reasonable and legitimate explanation that not only preserves the teaching of Jeremiah but also that of NT passages.
I'm still here should you wish more.

A final thought:  If you look at the immediate context, "succeed" refers in both usages to personal activity [here, success in attaining the rule, throne].  You might also check your Mandelkern for other translations and uses of the word in Jeremiah and in the remainder of the OT.  Can you find an intrinsic messianic meaning in the word?
So, for three reasons, namely, the immediate context, the usage, and the widely recognized use of parallelism, the obviously intended meaning of the word is a reference to the throne [rule].  
There is no connection with his genealogical position among the descendants of David -- something unattainable [since already done]and unchageable.