Expert: Messianic Rabbi Yochanan Levine - 4/1/2011

Question
You said:

There is a common misunderstanding on this point as most people do not understand the nature of the Levitical priesthood.

Consider:

Deuteronomy 10:8 At that time ADONAI set apart the tribe of Levi to carry the ark for the covenant of ADONAI and to stand before ADONAI to serve him and to bless in his name, as they still do today.
9 This is why Levi has no share or inheritance with his brothers; ADONAI is his inheritance, as ADONAI your God had said to him.

And again:

Joshua 13:14 Only to the tribe of Levi did Moshe give no inheritance; because the offerings made by fire for ADONAI the God of Isra'el are its inheritance; as [ADONAI] had said to Moshe.

The Levites ceased to exist as a separate tribe during the wilderness sojourn. They became a priesthood only. They took their wives and their sustenance from the other tribes. One could therefore easily be both a Levite and a member of the House of Judah of the Davidic lineage. There was no tribe of Levi in the 1st century nor is there today and yet there are still Levine's, Katz, Cohen's etc. of the House of Judah (i.e. Jews).

Elizabeth (Y'shua's aunt) was married to a cohen named Zacharias of the House of David (Luke 1:5) and there is strong reason to believe that Miryam was also a Levite. The only remaining Israelites that can be identified today are from either Judah or Benjamin. Those with names like Levine, as all Jews, are from the House of Judah.

--- And the Psalm clearly refers to David not someone in the future.

Which Psalm are you speaking of? Psalm 110 clearly is not speaking of David. There David himself says:

'Adonai spoke to my adon (master...) and said...' It is addressing David's master, the Moshiach, not David. David was not priest etc.

--- But I digress. Give me a practical answer to my previous question. Do you pray to Yeshua?..

I did give you a practical answer. Y'shua is cohen gadol of Israel. That is the role he plays for now.
Of course we don't pray to Y'shua. Prayers are to be addressed to no one but HaShem.

Y'shua intercedes as the high priests have always interceded.

---And what about the people that don't have his intercession?

The cohen gadol intercedes for all Israelites, whether they accept his intercession or not. That is his role. Aaron interceded for all the Israelites and so does Y'shua.
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Let's get the housework out of the way first. Psalm 110 is to David, not by David:

Psalm 110:1 "A Psalm to David. The L-rd said unto my Lord (Abraham), Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.”

For an excellent article on the priesthood of Melchizadek see

http://mountsinaitemple.giving.officelive.com/Melchizadek.aspx

This is not a prophecy nor does it supplant the Levitical Priesthood, which, like the commandments, are eternal (Number 25:13, and see 16:10 regarding those who wished to have the priesthood themselves but were not Levites).

One simply cannot be a member of two tribes. The Davidic line is through the tribe of Judah, the priest line is through the Levites. Whichever your father belonged to is your tribe (Yeshua's father belonged to the tribe of Judah-therefore he cannot be a priest). Messiah cannot be a priest and a priest cannot be THE messiah (although he can certainly be a messiah, as one who turns the hearts of the people back to Ha Shem).

The reference to David and the priesthood is not a change of that system, rather it shows the that each of us is a priest in the sense of "A nation of priests", but all Jews would agree that this does not qualify us to bring the sacrifices.

So, my next question is this: Was Yeshua the sacrifice himself? Do you believe in the vicarious atonement of his death? And if so, please give Scriptural evidence of anywhere the Hebrew Scriptures authorize this.

Thanks and shabbat shalom!

Answer
Shalom Ben,

Ben: ...Let's get the housework out of the way first. Psalm 110 is to David, not by David:...

RY: The Psalm itself affirms that this is a Psalm OF David (not to or about him) as the text clearly says. The Hebrew reads simply: mizmor david: "psalm [of] David" as it is normally translated (including in most Jewish translations). The same exact phrase is used in several of his other psalms where David's authorship is not questioned. Every time mizmor david is used it is translated as "a Psalm of David" and means that he is the author. The authorship of this Psalm is important because it says "Adonai said to my lord/master..." Whose lord or master determines the context of what is said as we will see. Compare the Jewish Publication Society version on this: The LORD saith unto my lord.

It does not, in Hebrew, say "to" David. The words are quite clear.

As even the Chabad translation reads:

Of David a psalm. The word of the Lord to my master; "Wait for My right hand, until I make your enemies a footstool at your feet." -- http://www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo/aid/16331 There is no question in this regard. It is BY David.

--- One simply cannot be a member of two tribes.

RY: Correct. And the House of Levi ceased to exist as a tribe as I have shown from Torah. It became the priesthood over all the tribes. Were this not so there could be no Levites today and all Orthodox shuls have Levites in various service positions. ALL of these Levites are either of the House of Judah or Benjamin because those are the only two left as far as anyone can prove.

--- Messiah cannot be a priest and a priest cannot be THE messiah (although he can certainly be a messiah, as one who turns the hearts of the people back to Ha Shem).

RY: You have a problem with your own interpretation here then. IF the Psalm is to David it calls him a priest after the fashion of Melchizedek.

But of course, it is by David, not to him anyway as the Hebrew clearly says.

---- So, my next question is this: Was Yeshua the sacrifice himself? Do you believe in the vicarious atonement of his death? And if so, please give Scriptural evidence of anywhere the Hebrew Scriptures authorize this.

RY: Absolutely not. We are Jews, not Nicene Christians.
Y'shua was not "sacrificed" in the Temple. He was executed in a defiled place (a graveyard is not acceptable for sacrifices to be performed). He was not "sacrificed" by Jewish priests. His blood fell to the ground, not into the fire of the alter. Human sacrifice is an abomination to the God of Israel. Micah says sacrificing even ones own son can not atone for since (Micah 6:7).

Y'shua was executed by the Roman Pagans (the same Pagans who later usurped the Messianic Jewish movement). These are they "who say they are Jews and are not" (Revelation 2:9). Since when could Pagans make acceptable sacrifices to the God of Israel? Of course we don't accept this heresy.

Shabbat Shalom.
May HaShem bless you and cause His Grace and Wisdom to flow ever more fully to and through you my brother.

~ Messianic Rabbi Yochanan Levine.


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Let's get the housework out of the way first. Psalm 110 is to David, not by David:

Psalm 110:1 "A Psalm to David. The L-rd said unto my Lord (Abraham), Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.”

For an excellent article on the priesthood of Melchizadek see

http://mountsinaitemple.giving.officelive.com/Melchizadek.aspx

This is not a prophecy nor does it supplant the Levitical Priesthood, which, like the commandments, are eternal (Number 25:13, and see 16:10 regarding those who wished to have the priesthood themselves but were not Levites).

One simply cannot be a member of two tribes. The Davidic line is through the tribe of Judah, the priest line is through the Levites. Whichever your father belonged to is your tribe (Yeshua's father belonged to the tribe of Judah-therefore he cannot be a priest). Messiah cannot be a priest and a priest cannot be THE messiah (although he can certainly be a messiah, as one who turns the hearts of the people back to Ha Shem).

The reference to David and the priesthood is not a change of that system, rather it shows the that each of us is a priest in the sense of "A nation of priests", but all Jews would agree that this does not qualify us to bring the sacrifices.

So, my next question is this: Was Yeshua the sacrifice himself? Do you believe in the vicarious atonement of his death? And if so, please give Scriptural evidence of anywhere the Hebrew Scriptures authorize this.

Thanks and shabbat shalom!