Expert: Edward Bode - 7/6/2011

Question
Hello, My name is James. Adam Clarke claimed that the word "without sin" in John 8:7 is used in the sense of "without this sin" among Greek writers. He says, "He that is without sin αναμαρτητος, meaning the same kind of sin, adultery, fornication, etc. Kypke has largely proved that the verb αμαρτανειν is used in this sense by the best Greek writers." I have checked various commentaries and have not found anything to confirm or repudiate this claim. Do you think there is reasonable cause to question his claim? Do you know of any sources which substantiate Adam Clarke's claim? Do you know who "Kypke" is? Thank you in advance for your help with this matter.

Answer
I am not familiar with Clarke nor Kypke.
However, understanding the word comes not from profane Greek writers but from the biblical [Koine] Greek.
While some of these NT and OT texts do have a sexual context, the limitation to that sense does not seem to me to fit the circumstances of the situation.  Jesus' statement is not suggesting that all the accusers are of a limited type of sin.  Rather, He seems to rule out anyone doing the stoning.  Recall Mt 7:1, Lk 6:37 about not judging lest one be judged [by God].  
So, since the Koine usage is both general and specific, I do not think that one can conclude with certainty that the meaning in Jn 8:7 should be restricted to the specific meaning.
That Jesus is thinking primarly of sexual sins has been in other authors [Rengstorf in Theological Dictionary of NT, Hoskyns-Davey, Strathmann], others are contrary [Bauer's dictionary, Becker, Schnackenburg].
I hope these thoughts are of some help, James.
You are welcome to write again
Best wishes.