Expert: Kristopher Browning - 2/1/2012

Question
On a sword sharpening sword issue.
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In an analogy of describing the concept of Free Will and Choice, of Finite Beings, there is a Self Referential Paradox Object.
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In the Beginning, before the Original Sin, we Know that God did not have a gun pointed at His Head, (All Knowing of All Things Past, Present, and Future), forcing God to Create Satan.  So we Know that God Free Will Chose to Create Satan, even given All Knowledge, that God was, from His Perfection, Creating Imperfection, for His Exclusive Worship and Pleasure.
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Thoughts on this Self Referential Paradox Object?  A type of Original Sin before The Original Sin, where the entire universe is born in a Sin Nature, starting with YHVH God and Christ, The Word, with YHVH-God.

Answer
Shawn,

You are bringing up a fundamental question of Christianity, which in its simplest form asks, "Why does God allow evil" and in its more complex forms acknowledge God's perfect foresight before creation, which suggest God himself committed an evil act.  Before we can discuss whether this is a paradox, we need to define a couple terms, primarily "omniscience".  If we mean complete knowledge of every action that Satan and every other created being would take it seems God is the first to suffer from a sinful nature.

A more Biblical view of omniscience found in the Old Testament suggest two qualities; having a plan for each created being and knowing all possible outcomes.  In other words, God does not know if the quarterback will run the ball or pass, but he knows every possible play (including those not yet conceived of by the players or coaches) and therefore is not surprised.  This means that God, knowing all possibilities, understood the risks of free will and as a great mathematician most likely understood that it would be a matter of time before a free will being disobeyed Him.  However, free will by its very nature gives each creation its own choice.  This means God created each angel with the capacity to sin, and Satan arose from this possibility.  God knew the possibility existed, as did an infinite number of other possibilities, but until Satan choose disobedience God would have been unsure of the actual outcome.  Admittedly, this definition is contrary to the last 500 years of western theology, but I believe I stand in agreement with both the Scriptures and the first several generations of theologians.  

A lot of the discussion comes down to applying 21st century western logic and theology to a Bible written mostly in a narrative format with an eastern understanding of logic, paradox, etc.  Perfection, for example, usually means "perfection of purpose" in both the Old and New Testaments.  This would suggest that if God did have total omniscience that Satan was still created to fulfill a purpose, such as we see in Job when he plays the role of the accusing angel.  In this way, he perfectly fulfills his given purpose even though Satan himself is not what we would consider a "perfect" being.

The church will continue to wrestle with applying western logic to Scripture, but so long as we understand the original context I believe it will always be a worthwhile exercise.  I hope I got to the center of your question, but as always I welcome feedback and follow-up.

Blessings,
Kris
www.KrisBrowning.com