Bible Studies/trying to understand conflicting verses
Hello Scott and thank you for taking my question:It states in Hebrews 7:25 "Therefore He is able also to save to the uttermost those who come unto God by Him, seeing He ever liveth to make intercession for them." and yet at the same time it states in John 16:26 "At that day ye shall ask in my name: and I say not unto you, that I will pray the Father for you:John 16:27 For the Father himself loveth you, because ye have loved me, and have believed that I came out from God."
So what I dont understand is that I always thought that, after reading ephesians, God wouldnt hear our prayers unless they went through Jesus first with Jesus being our sacrifice and all. I thought he only heard our prayers because JESUS was asking for us not that God wanted himself to answer our prayers. So could you please compare/contrast these two verses for me. Thank you
Hi Pete. It's nice to hear from you.
Yes, the Bible is clear that Jesus Christ intercedes for us before God the Father. It is because of His sacrifice, His payment for our sin, that we can approach God. Jesus wants to do this for us.
I think the confusion has to do with the John 16 passage:
17 Some of his disciples said to one another, "What does he mean by saying, 'In a little while you will see me no more, and then after a little while you will see me,' and 'Because I am going to the Father'?" 18 They kept asking, "What does he mean by 'a little while'? We don't understand what he is saying." 19 Jesus saw that they wanted to ask him about this, so he said to them, "Are you asking one another what I meant when I said, 'In a little while you will see me no more, and then after a little while you will see me'? 20 I tell you the truth, you will weep and mourn while the world rejoices. You will grieve, but your grief will turn to joy. 21 A woman giving birth to a child has pain because her time has come; but when her baby is born she forgets the anguish because of her joy that a child is born into the world. 22 So with you: Now is your time of grief, but I will see you again and you will rejoice, and no one will take away your joy. 23 In that day you will no longer ask me anything. I tell you the truth, my Father will give you whatever you ask in my name. 24 Until now you have not asked for anything in my name. Ask and you will receive, and your joy will be complete. 25 "Though I have been speaking figuratively, a time is coming when I will no longer use this kind of language but will tell you plainly about my Father. 26 In that day you will ask in my name. I am not saying that I will ask the Father on your behalf. 27 No, the Father himself loves you because you have loved me and have believed that I came from God.
Read the passage carefully. Jesus is talking to His disciples. Up to this point, the disciples were able to ask things of Jesus, and Jesus would relay their requests to the Father. He was the one doing the asking. Jesus is saying that there is coming a time at which the disciples will no longer have to communicate through Jesus (v. 23). Instead, they will be able to approach the Father directly and present their requests in the name of (because of/for the glory of) Jesus (v. 26).
Jesus isn't saying that He is unwilling to intercede for the disciples. He is simply saying that it will no longer be necessary for them to approach the Father through Him, but rather they will be able to do so directly. And His intercessory work will still apply.
Does this make sense now?