Expert: Logan - 3/27/2005

Question
Logan why does the bible refer to the resurrection as "He is risen" in preference to "He has risen"?
Thank you Dan, AZ

Answer
 Hello.  I have no idea.  I mean, I realize that the words are translated from the type of Greek that the New Testament used.  But other than that, I don't know.  Was there any particular reason why you were asking, or were you just wondering?  Feel free to ask anything again.  Thanks.  Sorry I couldn't help with this particular question.


 God's Gospel:

"For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;" Romans 3:23   

"For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord." Romans 6:23   

"But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us." Romans 5:8   

"For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life." John 3:16   

"That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation." Romans 10:9-10