Expert: Edward Bode - 2/1/2007

Question
Hello: I have a statement about slavery and would like to know if it is correct:
  
    The bible clearly does outright condemn slavery - it even has laws regulating it. And even goes as far - in Genesis - to say that GOD blessed Abraham by increasing his number of slaves (paraphrased of course). My opinion is this: If you fell off a building, we do not think if "Unfair" and get mad at the law of gravity that we fall and get hurt - we just accept, without question, that the law of gravity is there regardless of our feelings regarding it and it always will act in the same way. We feel or think this way regarding any of the laws of nature - we may be upset if we get burned by fire - but we certainly dont call the laws of physics "Unfair."

This being the case, I have come to the following conclusion and would like your opinions on it:

In order to "Save," the human race, God's most moral option was that of choosing his son to die for us - in turn,  we must become "slaves of Christ rather than slaves of sin"   

it is one or the other - no questions asked. That being the case - since, as the bible says, the heavens and earth will melt away but the smallest part of my word will never perish - I have concluded the following. The fact of slavery, at least in biblical times - is not a moral question to be argued over, but rather, a force, like the forces of nature - only stronger (since the forces of nature will pass away but not the word of God). God HAD TO allow the "Force" or the theology of slavery to exist, fair or not, hurtful or not, in order that if he DIDNT - then he could not save us by applying the same laws of slavery to Christ in regards to those who are saved by being a slave to him. In other words, Like gravity, or light, etc etc etc - the idea of slavery is neither moral nor immoral, but rather a necessity (not that we should condone it now) in order for God to have arranged the universe and his laws regarding it to allow for our "being a slave to Christ" to exist - if he didnt - no one could be saved.

If you look at the laws in exodus regarding slavery, they somewhat mimick Christ's ownership of us - the fact that the institution of slavery can exist in God's eyes therefore takes on a form of comfort in that we are saved by being slaves to his son rather than taking on a form of cruelty in the way men have treated their slaves.

What do you think?  

Answer
In regard to comments on my reply, I would add these thoughts: One needs to be careful in applying OT practices to the NT. Also, concerning slavery: I prefer to distinguish between human slavery strictly speaking in any of its forms and the figurative use applying this concept to the submission of one's self to God.  Possibly, the greatest difference between the two usages is that our submission to God is voluntary, not to another human being, and so more complete than any submission to a human master.

My compliments, Josh, on devoting your efforts to understand the concept of slave as related to God and His Savior.
Rather than my commenting directly on your biblical, theological, philosopohical essay, please allow me to proffer some further thoughts for your consideration.
First, Jesus, the final Word of God, chose to comment upon and to change many precepts of the Torah [Old Law].  Perhaps, the most salient exercise of this authority appears in Matthew Chapter 5 and following.  So, it is sometimes problematical to argue from the Old Testament to the New.
Second, the word "slave" may be said to have a literal meaning, namely, a person whose life and livehood are subject to some other human, and also a figurative meaning, namely, that a person is devoted to another in a manner that recalls or suggests the relationship of a real slave to a real master.
Third, the concept of slavery is not a fixed and unchangeable concept.  For example, the slavery of the ancient near east is not the same as Israelite slavery and is not the same as the slavery of the Roman Empire and is not the same as the American slavery of previous centuries.
Fourth, slavery as a human institution is not in the same category as forces of nature, the laws of physics, etc., which are constant and fixed.
Given these comments, I would think that you might find it worthwhile to polish and fine-tune your thoughts.
If you would like for me to respond further to what you have written or what you might think in response to my comments, please feel free to write again.
Best wishes, Josh.