Expert: Spirit Sword - 2/1/2007

Question
Hello: I have a statement about slavery and would like to know if it is correct:
  
    The bible clearly does outright condemn slavery - it even has laws regulating it. And even goes as far - in Genesis - to say that GOD blessed Abraham by increasing his number of slaves (paraphrased of course). My opinion is this: If you fell off a building, we do not think if "Unfair" and get mad at the law of gravity that we fall and get hurt - we just accept, without question, that the law of gravity is there regardless of our feelings regarding it and it always will act in the same way. We feel or think this way regarding any of the laws of nature - we may be upset if we get burned by fire - but we certainly dont call the laws of physics "Unfair."

This being the case, I have come to the following conclusion and would like your opinions on it:

In order to "Save," the human race, God's most moral option was that of choosing his son to die for us - in turn,  we must become "slaves of Christ rather than slaves of sin"   

it is one or the other - no questions asked. That being the case - since, as the bible says, the heavens and earth will melt away but the smallest part of my word will never perish - I have concluded the following. The fact of slavery, at least in biblical times - is not a moral question to be argued over, but rather, a force, like the forces of nature - only stronger (since the forces of nature will pass away but not the word of God). God HAD TO allow the "Force" or the theology of slavery to exist, fair or not, hurtful or not, in order that if he DIDNT - then he could not save us by applying the same laws of slavery to Christ in regards to those who are saved by being a slave to him. In other words, Like gravity, or light, etc etc etc - the idea of slavery is neither moral nor immoral, but rather a necessity (not that we should condone it now) in order for God to have arranged the universe and his laws regarding it to allow for our "being a slave to Christ" to exist - if he didnt - no one could be saved.

If you look at the laws in exodus regarding slavery, they somewhat mimick Christ's ownership of us - the fact that the institution of slavery can exist in God's eyes therefore takes on a form of comfort in that we are saved by being slaves to his son rather than taking on a form of cruelty in the way men have treated their slaves.

What do you think?  

Answer
Hello Josh,

I think that your conclusions have some merit particularly your observation of how we become slaves to Christ.  I am confused however, where you get the idea that the scriptures condemn slavery?   If you could support this with chapter and verse I can take a look at them.  I do know that there are laws surrounding the treatment of a slave but I don't know of any condemning slavery.       

The part of your conclusion I strongly disagree with is this statement:

"God HAD TO allow the "Force" or the theology of slavery
to exist, fair or not, hurtful or not, in order that if he DIDNT - then he could not save us by applying the same laws of slavery to Christ in regards to those who are saved by being a slave to him."

God does not have to allow slavery to exist in order to redeem mankind.  The redemption of mankind is costly and the ransom is eternal death.  There is no other force/theology God must create before the price of eternal death can be paid.   

 God just likens our relationship to Christ like that of a master and slave just like He likens our relationship to Him as that of a Father and child or even husband and wife.  It's just another way to help us understand the relationship we have with Him after we become a new creature in Christ.  We are like a slave in the sense that a price was paid for us that we may serve Him and not sin.  That price of course was Christ's death on the cross.       
 

Spirit Sword