Expert: LEBoyd - 9/27/2007

Question
Copied from Wikipedia...."There is much debate over when the rapture will occur in relation to the Tribulation, a seven-year period preceding the second coming of Christ to the earth. Three different views predominate. The first is that it will take place sometime prior to the Tribulation. The second is that it will take place mid-way through the Tribulation. The third is that it will take place after the Tribulation, when Christ comes to earth to establish his kingdom, taking over rulership of the world for 1,000 years.".... What is your belief about what will transpire before the second coming of Christ? Will true believers be spared and "snatched" from the earth before the reign of the  anti-christ or not? Does it matter that the word rapture is not found in the bible? Thank you for your time.

Answer
Joe,

First, let me just say that Wikipedia is not necessarily the best source for information that is opinion based.

Now, let me address some of the issues.  "Rapture" is a word that began to be used by pre-millennialist.  It generally comes from 1 Cor 15 and Rev 20.  "Pre-millennialist" believe that Rev 20 is speaking about a literal 1000 year reign, and that 1 Cor 15 happens prior to that reign.  The basic thought is that Jesus calls the saved, the non-saved stay on earth and then Jesus reigns for 1000 years on earth.

"Post-millianist" believe that the 1000 year reign will happen first, followed the end of the world (no rapture).  This is again based on a literal interpretation of Rev 20.

"A-millianist" do not believe Rev 20 is literal, and that there will not be a 1000 year reign on earth by Jesus.  When Jesus returns, that's the end of the world, the judgment happens, the saved go with Him to heaven and the unsaved go to hell.

Personally, I am in the third camp.  I believe when the whole Bible is taken into consideration, there will be no warning, there will not be a 'snatching' with others being left on earth for a second chance and there will not be a 1000 year reign on earth.

If I gave you all the reasons why I believe this, it would take a large book.  However, briefly just to address the 1000 year reign, I consider the book of Daniel.  Daniel has many prophecies wherein a literal interpretation is not possible, yet it does tell us about the empires of Babylon, Persia, Greece, Rome and the church.  The language in Revelation is so similar to Daniel, that the two books should use the same method of interpretation (e.g., not literal).

Now, Daniel says, "lock up this book because these things are not going to happen for a long time."(paraphrased)  Revelation says 6 times, "get the word out now because these things are going to happen very soon." (again, paraphrased).

A "long time" to Daniel was about 650 years.  If the 1,000 year reign was literal, a "short time" in Revelation is more than 2,000 years.  I have a big problem with that, and that's why I believe Revelation is specifically addressing the fall of Jerusalem in 70ad.

I could also write a lot about the anti-Christ, but let me just give you this.  "Antichrist" is never used in Revelation.  It is only used by John in 1 and 2 John.  In 1 John 2:22 we read this, "This is the antichrist, the one who denies the Father and the Son."  Does that not sound like the "antichrist" was around when John was alive?  There's no special 'antichrist', like there is Satan.

I know this was probably longer than you wanted, but I hope it helps some.

Thanks,