Expert: Norman Solberg - 12/27/2008

Question
I don't know if you can answer this or not but I was sexually assaulted before my fiance and I were married.  I found out shortly after we were married that I was pregnant and so I was unsure as to the paternity of my baby.  I wanted to think the baby was my husband's because the alternative is painful.  However, my husband has a problem.  I am sorry I cannot think of a classier way to say this, he often is unable to ejaculate.  He will have some pre-ejaculation wetness but not fully ejaculate.  So is it even possible that the baby could be his when he only ever had the pre and not a full?

I was expecting the baby not to look like him because of his problems but quite honestly I feel the baby looks just like him but I do not know if it is just wishful thinking or not.  

Answer
It is possible to get pregnant with just the pre-ejaculate, although it makes it less likely.  I think you'll be able to make a good guess depending on if the baby was due 9 months after the assault.  It is possible with testing of your husband and the baby to know for sure.  I hope that's helpful.