Expert: Dan Smith - 6/15/2006

Question
hello,
my questions is in regards to the use of archaic definitions.
is it proper to use a word in a sentence, but use the word with an archaic definition as opposed to the common definition of today?
thanks

Answer
Probably not, though I'd like to see the specific example you have in mind. But presumably when you write something you want to be understood. A reversion to archaic terms would usually defeat that purpose. Why not use whatever has become the contemporary term for the original meaning so that you will be understood?

That said, I can imagine times when you might do just that in the knowledge that in the particular context your intended audience would understand your meaning. If that is the case, and there is a dramatic or stylistic reason for making such a choice, go ahead.

As you can see, the question you ask has little to do with technical propriety or grammar. It has to do with effective communication.

Hope this helps.