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Calculus/Calculs question

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Expert: - 7/28/2009


Question

Calculs
Hi Prof, please see the attached question and help me out on this.

Answer
It is known that the integral of cos(x) from B down to A is sin(B)-sin(A).
sin(π/4) - sin(π/6) = √2/2 - 1/2 = (√2 - 1)/2.

I can't see anyway to do it without working out the values.

(√2 - 1)/2 is the same as 0.207106781.
Now π√2/4 = 0.185120122 and π√3/4 = 0.226724921/

From here, we can see that the integral is between those two values.  

Scotto

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