You are here: Experts > Teens > Homework/Study Tips > Calculus > Calculus
Expert: Abe Mantell
Date: 8/29/2005
Subject: Calculus
Question Dear Abe,
Thanks for your help. I have used the rule:
Integral(dx / x^2 - a^2) = 1/2a ln (absolute vale of)(x-a)/(x-b) + c
to get
Integral (sin(x)/(1+sin^2(x)) dx)
= - ((ln(cosx - sqrt2) - ln(cosx + sqrt2)) / (2 sqrt2) + c
Hopefully this makes sense to you.
If the limits of Integral (sin(x)/(1+sin^2(x)) dx) are between pi/2 and 0,
is it correct to use u=0 when x=pi/2 & u=1 when x=0 to get -1.4351?
Thanks again,
Allison.
-------------------------
Followup To
Question -
How is the integral of sin x / 1+sin^2 x found?
Answer -
Hello Allison,
I gathe you mean:
Integral(sin(x)/(1+sin^2(x)) dx)...yes?
If so, then let u=cos(x), so that du=-sin(x)dx
and sin^2(x)=1-u^2...so the integral becomes:
Integral(du/(u^2-2))...can you finish it from here?
Let me know if you need more help! :-)
Abe
Answer Hello again Allison,
Should the limits of integration go from
x=0 TO x=pi/2 (rather than the reverse)?
If so, then I get the integral is:
-sqrt(2)ln(3-2sqrt(2))/4
which is about 0.623225
If the limits of integration are reversed, as you
have them, then the answer is just the negative
of what I have above...OK?
TTYL, Abe
Add to this Answer
Ask a Question