Expert: Tom Schott - 5/7/2008

Question
Forgive me if this is too blunt: I understand that oral sex is permissible at least as an act of foreplay within the context of a marital relationship.  Is it permissible for a wife to give her husband oral sex to completion if some of the semen is then placed in the wife, thus making the sexual act open to life?

Answer
Justin,

You're not too blunt. I won't be either. I find it difficult to believe that God intended sex between married couples to be as mechanistic as you describe. I've always counseled that any sexual practice between married people is permissible. Take this case for example: a guy cannot sustain an erection except by hand . . . it definitely happens with older men and younger guys too on occasion. If his wife helps him to orgasm, must they then ensure some of his seed is inserted manually into her to avoid sin? I think not. I think not in your case either. At some point, we just have to assume that God is reasonable. I don't think he's a hair-splitter.