Expert: Sal - 7/6/2010

Question
I  realize that this is a common issue brought up by protestants, but it is a first for me.

Because it says "Until she bore a son..." the argument, of course, is that the Holy Queen did not remain a virgin. My wife wants to find the original Greek to see if this helps her.  She is protestant.

Any help would be appreciated.

Thanks,

Robb

Answer
Dear Robb:

The word “until” in Matthew 1:25 doesn’t imply that afterward what didn’t happen before now happens. Matthew is concerned with showing that Mary was a virgin before the conception of Jesus. He is unconcerned with showing Mary to be a perpetual virgin. This becomes clear when we read the context, particularly v. 22 and v. 23. “All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet: ‘The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel’—which means, ‘God with us’” (Matthew 1:22-23).  This was a prophecy of the prophet Isaiah (7:14) that said that the messiah would be born of a virgin. So that was Matthew’s reason for being concerned with showing that Jesus was the messiah because his conception and birth fulfilled this prophecy.

Here are some examples of how the Bible uses “until”.

“As to Michal daughter of Saul, she had no child until the day of her death” (2 Samuel 6:23). She didn’t have children after her death. She continued in the state of childlessness.

“In his (the Messiah’s) days the righteous will flourish; prosperity will abound until the moon is no more” (Psalm 72:7). This doesn’t mean that afterward unrighteousness will flourish.

“The LORD says to my Lord: ‘Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet’" (Psalm 110:1). This doesn’t mean that Jesus leaves the Father afterward.

“Then Jesus came to them and said, ‘All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, until end of the age’" (Matthew 28:18-20). Jesus doesn’t leave his Church after the current age has ended. He continues to be with the Church.

“There was also a prophetess, Anna, the daughter of Phanuel, of the tribe of Asher. She was very old; she had lived with her husband seven years after her marriage, and then was a widow until she was eighty-four” (Luke 2:36-37). She didn’t marry at 84, but contined as a widow.

“But He answered them, ‘My Father is working until now, and I myself am working’" (John 5:17). This doesn’t mean that the Father and Jesus became unemployed the next day.

“For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet” (1 Corinthians 15:25). Jesus doesn’t stop reigning after he has defeated his enemies, he continues as King.

“Until I come, devote yourself to the public reading of Scripture, to preaching and to teaching” (1 Timothy 4:13). This doesn’t mean that reading of the Bible, preaching the gospel, and teaching Christian truths were to stop after St. Paul arrived they continued as before.

“In the sight of God, who gives life to everything, and of Christ Jesus, who while testifying before Pontius Pilate made the good confession, I charge you to keep this command without spot or blame until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ” (1 Timothy 6:13-14). This doesn’t mean that after Jesus returns we may begin sinning.

“Now I say to the rest of you in Thyatira, to you who do not hold to her teaching and have not learned Satan's so-called deep secrets (I will not impose any other burden on you): Only hold on to what you have until I come” (Revelation 2:24-25). Again this doesn’t mean that after Jesus returns we can begin sinning.

As you can plainly see “until” as used in the Bible doesn’t mean that a change in behavior must occur after the “until”.

I hope this helps you and your wife. If I can be of further help just let me know.

God Bless You,
Sal