Expert: Edward Bode - 11/7/2006

Question
How does the Church justify forbidding divorce in all circumstances, when Christ clearly allowed for it in case of adultery?

Answer
The teaching of the Church rests upon both scripture and tradition.
In the NT, Mt 5:32 makes an exception for "porneia" which many today interpret as referring to unlawfulnes, that is, marriages forbidden under Jewish practices of the time.  The gospel of Matthew is usually understood as being addressed primarily to Jewish people.  However, Mk 10:11-12 gives no exception to the prohibition.  The gospel of Mark  is usually understood as being addressed primarily to Gentiles.  1 Cor 7:10 gives no exception; Paul, however, does go on to deal with the special case of an unbelieving and objecting spouse.  Rom 7:2 contains no exception.  So, to make sense of all the NT texts, the understanding of Mt does not argue for a general exception in case of adultery dissolving a marriage. If adultery, a violation of marriage, would dissolve a marriage and so open the way for further marriage, that would indeed seem very strange -- the way to get out of marriage would be to sin against marriage.  
In tradition, the acceptance of divorce does not appear in Europe before the 16th century.
So, the Church teaching rests upon a reasonable and reliable understanding of Matthew, Mark and Paul as was evidenced by 1500 years of tradition.
If you would like some further thoughts, please feel free to write again.
Best wishes, JJ.