Expert: Sal - 4/11/2006

Question
Hi Sal,

I've heard Protestants argue that the Bible preceded the church with the argument that the Bible states that in the beginning was the word.  Of course I don't believe this supports that argument.  How do we know that 'word' refers to Christ?  Does this reference to Christ mean that he was a mediator of humanity?

Thanks,

Les

Answer
Hello Les!

Great to hear from you. It is absurd of the Protestant to argue that "the word" of John 1:1 is the Bible. It is obvious from the context that "the word" is Jesus. Verse 2 states, "He was in the beginning with God." Is the Bible a "he"? Verse 3: "all things were made through him." Again obviously Jesus (Colossians 1:15-17). Verse 14, "The word became flesh and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth; we have beheld his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father." The Bible is paper not flesh and the Bible is not God's only Son. It is just stupidity to claim that the Bible is "the word" of John 1:1. But when one rejects God's chosen authority on earth-the Catholic Church-one devises all manner of strange teachings.

The reference means that Jesus is God and created all things and through him we receive power to become God's children. So, yes, Jesus is the mediator of humanity.

Thanks for the question, Les.

God Bless You,
Sal