Expert: Sal - 10/11/2005

Question
Hi Sal,

When the Bible tells us that in the beginning there was the word and that the word was with God, what does that mean?  I've heard Protestants argue that this means that the Bible came before the church, but I know this argument is incorrect.  Can you clarify this for me?

Thanks,

Les

Answer
Hi Les:

Nice to hear from you again, my friend.

I have heard of the bizarre usage of John 1:1 that some Protestants use against the Catholic Church. It shows to what extent some Protestants are willing to go in order to dispute the Catholic Church's claim to authority. They ignore the plain teaching of the Bible that the One True Church has authority over an individual's private interpretation of Scripture. “First you must understand this: there is no prophecy contained in Scripture which is a personal interpretation” (II Peter 1:20). Our first Pope warned that the Bible is sometimes difficult for the individual to interpret. “There are certain passages in them hard to understand. The ignorant and the unstable distort them, just as they do the rest of Scripture, to their own ruin” (II Peter 3:16). If you see a fellow Christian in error and you try to correct him (a Spiritual Work of Mercy) does Jesus advise telling him to read some relevant Bible passage? Or to quote the Bible to him? No, Jesus advises to have him listen to what the Church says. If this person refuses to listen to me or you—no problem. But if he refuses to listen to the Church—big problem. “If he ignores even the Church, them treat him as you would a Gentile or a tax collector,” counsels our Lord. The Church has total authority to teach. “I assure you, whatever you declare bound on earth shall be held bound in heaven, and whatever you declare loosed on earth shall be held loosed in heaven” (Matthew 18:15-18).

Now let's look at the passage in question. “In the beginning was the Word (the Bible?); the Word was in God's presence (the Bible, not yet written, was before God?), and the Word was God” (the Bible is God?). He (the Bible has a gender?) was present to God in the beginning (the Bible always existed?). Through him all things came into being, and apart from him nothing came into being” (the Bible created everything?). This passage, John 1:1-3, should be enough to show how utterly foolish it is to attempt to say that John wanted to show that the Bible came before the Church. The Church wrote the New Testament. Another hilarious passage is John 1:11: “To his own he came, yet his own did not accept him” (the Bible came to other books and was not accepted?!). The Word in John 1 is Jesus.

Revelation does not come through the Bible only, but from the Bible, sacred traditions, and the magisterium of the Catholic Church. “Therefore, brothers, stand firm. Hold fast to the traditions you received from us, either by our word or by  letter” ( II Thessalonians 2:15). The Bible & tradition teaches us. “He who hears you, hears me. He who rejects you, rejects me” (Luke 10:16). The Church also teaches us. Remember that St. Paul calls the church not the Bible “the pillar and bulwark of truth” (I Timothy 3:15).

I hope that this was helpful to you.

God Bless You,
Sal