Expert: Dean Gade - 10/13/2009

Question
Hello,

I am studying the Bible and have found that the words "may" and "might" are not directly translated, such as Gal. 3:14 (the "might's") and Prov 5:18 (may) and gen 27:28 (may) and 1 thess 3:11 for examples.  Were these words added as interpretation or does the Hebrew and Greek really have a translation for "may" and "might"?  I'm using the NIV.  The words "may' and "might" add the idea of possibility and not of definitiveness.  So if they are not really a part of the translation, the text has a completely different tone.  Are these words translated properly? Thanks.

Answer
Troy,

I am back  from my trip now and here is the answer to your question:

I am not an expert in Hebrew but as far as the Greek is concerned,  the translations are correct when they use "might" or "may.

Most languages, other than English, are much more exact because of their prefixes and suffixes.  For instance in Gal.3:14  the word; genetai is a 3rd person, singular, second aorist, subjunctive.  Being in the subjunctive causes the verb to be translated as "might" or "may".  This is also true of the word: labowmen in that same verse.

There is no subjunctive verb in I Thess.3:11.  Kateuthenai has the optative mood and really can't be translated with any other understanding than "will" or "might... direct you".

I hope this helps you and even encourages you to take an on-line course in Koine Greek.  I know that the 4 year seminary that I attended years ago is now offering a course in Greek, online.  Knowing the basic grammar does make study of the Bible much more exciting and appealing.