Christianity--Church History/Bible Contradictions
Expert: Brenda Martin - 12/31/2009
QuestionQUESTION: Brenda,
I agree that the Passover is sacrificed the night of the 14th. I was not disputing that. My point is that "the preparation" would be before the night of the 14th. How can "the preparation" of the passover be after the passover is eaten?
You wrote:
Regarding the lamb or goat that was to be eaten during the course of the Passover meal, Jehovah God commanded: “It must continue under safeguard by you until the fourteenth day of this month, and the whole congregation of the assembly of Israel must slaughter it between the two evenings.”—Ex. 12:6.
The quote from the bible of Ex. 12:6 does not say "between the two evenings," it says: "... the congregation of Israel shall kill it in the evening." This is from the bible I have, from what I could find on-line, and I even walked over the book store and looked at a copy there just to be more certain. This is the second time you've misquoted the bible.
Really, you went on explaining where the sixth hour came from (which I was only looking for a brief explanation) and the two evenings (which aren't even in the bible) and have not provided a clear answer to the real question posed.
We both agree that the sixth hour would be sometime around noon. But I need to know when the duration of "the preparation of the passover" ends. My understanding is simply that preparation for an event can not be preparation if it does not happen before the event takes place (I believe this is the point we should focus on). Therefore, if the preparation is before the passover, and it was the sixth hour "during the preparation" when Jesus was taken, then he could not have had the meal because the sixth hour was before the evening of the sacrifice (i.e. the passover meal hadn't even been sacrificed yet).
Thanks,
MM
ANSWER: "THE PREPARATION IS BEFORE THE PASSOVER"
As I have explained--, John 19:14 says: “Now it was preparation OF the passover.” (NW, KJ, Da) SOME commentators have understood this to mean “preparation FOR the passover,” and certain translations so render the verse. (AT, We, CC)
This, though, suggests that the Passover had not yet been celebrated, whereas the Gospel accounts explicitly show that Jesus and the apostles had celebrated it the night before. (Lu 22:15; Mt 26:18-20; Mr 14:14-17) Christ perfectly carried out the regulations of the Law, including the requirement to celebrate the Passover on Nisan 14. (Ex 12:6; Le 23:5)
The day of Jesus’ trial and death could be viewed as the “preparation OF the passover” in the sense that it was the preparation FOR the seven-day Festival of Unfermented Cakes that began the next day.
All the best
Brenda
---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------
QUESTION: Hi Brenda,
This will be my last comment.
This is all actually VERY simple. For some reason you've complicated the issue. And you again misquoted the bible.
Regardless, you admit that in John it "suggests that the Passover had not yet been celebrated" and you are quoting Lu, Mt, and Mr that say it had been celebrated. My whole point is that Lu, Mt, and Mr, contradict what John says. So you are only making it more clear that there is a difference in what John wrote about when the crucifixion took place compared to what the others wrote.
I don't know why you don't see it. A man with a PhD in textual criticism pointed this contradiction out to me and I thought I would run it by the experts first. It is very clearly a contradiction and I don't see why you are searching so hard for an answer, when the answer is right in front of you... It's a contradiction.
I appreciate you taking the time out of your schedule to answer my questions. Thank you.
Very sincerely,
MM
ANSWER: My stand is actually very "simple" also; the bible is inspired by God & God cannot lie, if it says, Jesus ate the passover, then there was a "preparation" so be it.
the bible has no contradictions!
sincerely
Brenda
---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------
QUESTION: I believe in God but I pointed out a clear contradiction... maybe it's not God that wrote or inspired this. Have you ever considered that? Until you at least consider that possibility, you are following blindly.
Now, that was really my last response.
Thanks,
MM
Answer"BIBLE INSPIRED-. HAVE YOU EVER CONSIDERED THAT?"
Of course :¬) I looked into all that over 30 years ago, & continue to examine the bible daily & I am only convinced to a greater extent now, that it is inspired of God.
Here are some of the proofs I considered—
1. It is filled with prophecies reflecting detailed knowledge of the future—something impossible for humans
2. Its contents are scientifically sound on matters that human researchers discovered only at a later date
3. The Bible is not a science textbook. But when it touches on scientific matters, it is accurate.
4. The information found in God’s Word is practical for everyday life.
5. The Bible is also historically & geographically accurate and reliable.
6. The Bible is a unique book. Yet, its value extends far beyond its internal harmony,
scientific and historical accuracy, practical wisdom, and reliable prophecy.
“The word of God is alive and exerts power and is sharper than any two-edged sword and pierces even to the dividing of soul and spirit, and of joints and their marrow, and is able to discern thoughts and intentions of the heart.”—Hebrews 4:12. Reading God’s “word,” or message, in the Bible can change our life. It can help us to examine ourselves as never before, it reveals our true thoughts, even the very intentions of the heart.
In his book Caesar and Christ, historian Will Durant endeavored to examine the Gospel accounts from a purely objective viewpoint—as historical documents. Admitting that there are seeming contradictions and problems in the Gospel accounts, he nonetheless concluded: “The contradictions are of minutiae [trivial details], not substance; in essentials the synoptic gospels agree remarkably well, and form a consistent portrait of Christ.”
All the very best
Brenda